T
The_Exodus
Guest
I’ve been reading a lot of the Summa Theologica, particularly about the Fall of Man/Original Justice. If Aquinas is right and the first humans were created in a state where all passions were completely subject to reason, and there was no evil concupiscence in man, how was he “tempted” and, more importantly, how did he consent to sin? If he could not even experience any desire to sin, why would he have eaten the fruit?
Any light on this question would be greatly appreciated.
Any light on this question would be greatly appreciated.