F
Fran65
Guest
I’m reading more about Aquinas and have come across the statement that objects of our experience (including ourselves) do not have it in their nature to exist.
I’m unsure of the basis for this. Is it that although things exist, they could equally not exist? Or is there more to it than that? And also, if this is the case, why does there have to be something that has it in its nature to exist (which I assume is God)?
I’m probably working through stuff that’s been discussed here lots of time, but I do want to understand it as thoroughly as possible.
I’m unsure of the basis for this. Is it that although things exist, they could equally not exist? Or is there more to it than that? And also, if this is the case, why does there have to be something that has it in its nature to exist (which I assume is God)?
I’m probably working through stuff that’s been discussed here lots of time, but I do want to understand it as thoroughly as possible.