Question on today's 1st reading

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The last line of the 1st reading today:
“no one who sins has seen him or known him.” 1Jn 3:6
What does this mean?
 
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The context of the verse is best understood when you read verses 4 thru 10:

1 John 3:4-10 -
4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. 5 You know that He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin. 6 No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him. 7 Little children, make sure no one deceives you; the one who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous; 8 the one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The Son of God appeared for this purpose, to destroy the works of the devil. 9 No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. 10 By this the children of God and the children of the devil are obvious: anyone who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother. **
 
I’ll assume you mean the Catholic version which I understand to be - if you know the importance of God you would not ever chose sin. The Protestants use this verse for many things it is a back bone of once saved always saved crowd. Protestants are very diverse some claim this assures salvation for people they deem as “saved”, other Protestants say this is the differentiator for the truly saved verses the people who went through the motions. Catholic do not believe any man knows who is granted salvation, salvation is granted by God only outside of man’s control and knowledge of the actual grant.
 
My :twocents: …

According to the Introduction to 1 John in my NAB (1971), this letter…was written to specific Christian communities some of whose members were advocating false doctrines (2:18f, 26; 3:7). These errors are here recognized and rejected (4:4); although their advocates have left the community (2:29), the threat posed by them remains (3:11). They have refused to acknowledge that Jesus is the Christ (2:22), the Son of God (2:23) who came into the world as true man (4:2). They are difficult people to deal with, claiming special knowledge of God but disregarding the divine commandments (2:4), particularly the commandment of love of neighbor, and refusing to accept faith in Christ as the source of sanctification (1:6; 2:6, 9). Thus they are denying the redemptive value of Jesus’ death (5:6). Scholars generally agree that the group so stigmatized had adopted some form of Gnosticism, but as yet it has not been identified with any specific body of heretical teaching. (p. 1363)
These false teachers were claiming special knowlege of God (“known him”), perhaps from supernatural visions (“seen him”), and using this as justification for promoting sinful behavior. St. John’s reply to their false teachings is that “no one who sins has seen him or known him.” That is, whatever the source of their false teachings, they were not from God because God would not promote sinful behavior.
 
It may help to read the whole book of 1Jn.,then refer back to what our Lord taught about fullfilling the law.🙂
 
The last line of the 1st reading today:
“no one who sins has seen him or known him.” 1Jn 3:6
What does this mean?
That’s a toughie!! Have checked several commentaries. When they comment on the “sins”, they say it refers to mortal sins - and choosing to continue that way of living (versus repenting and trying to change) - to “walk in darkness” to use John’s words (1 John 1:6 "If we say we have fellowship with him while we walk in darkness, we lie and do not live according to the truth;" .)

It is important to know that John does not mean that Christians never sin - for he has already said that we do:
1 John 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, and will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Nita
 
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