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CThomas
Guest
Let’s consider some particular Christian living in the fourth century. Call him “X.” X lives within the jurisdiction of an Arian bishop. Was it sinful for X, relying on his own private judgment, to reject Arianism and espouse (what is now known to be) orthodoxy in contravention of the instructions of his bishop (and priests, etc.)? Do Catholics believe that someone in X’s position would, strangely enough, go to hell for adhering to orthodoxy and go to heaven for holding to the Arian heresy because of due deference to X’s bishop? Or would God want X to adhere to orthodoxy and defy X’s bishop?
CThomas
CThomas