Question?

  • Thread starter Thread starter brendenseth
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Hi jonathan,

I agree with what you are saying here. I was not speaking objectively, but was rather shaping my response to fit the OP’s question. This is what caught my eye:

The wording here doesn’t sound like an act of love. If you are kissing someone you love, it isn’t necessarily because it gives you arousal, but because it is a unitive act which expresses your love.

In the OP, it honestly sounds like a person asking if it is moral for his wife to give him pleasure. It doesn’t sound like asking permission to enjoy an act where they both express love for each other.

Now, I can’t make any judgments as to the OP’s intentions, and it is definitely possible that he just worded his post badly, but now you know the reason for the tone of my response.
Yeah, in that case it would be using your wife solely for pleasure. As good ole Kant said, we shouldn’t use people merely as means to an end. I wonder where he got that idea from?:whistle:
 
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