Redefining Marriage

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VeritasLuxMea

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I saw this picture recently and literally laughed out loud. I had forgotten a few of these Bible stories. So it made me wonder, when was marriage re-defined to include ONLY one man and one woman who enter into marriage of their own free will? Who re-defined it to one man and one woman in free will, God? Or the society? Why did God sanction some of these alternative types of marriage?

Thanks.

(See picture for relevant Bible sections)
 
Since all of these examples are from the Old Testament, I think you can safely say that marriage has been defined as between 1 man & 1 woman for at least 2000 years; isn’t that enough for you?
 
Since even according to your poster, marriage in the time of Adam and Eve was between one man and one woman, it would seem that it was man who corrupted marriage, and Jesus Christ who restored it to it original dignity.
 
Marriage was defined as between one man and one woman in Genesis with Adam and Eve. As to the rest of your questions, Jesus answers them:
Mt 10:4-9 They said, “Moses allowed a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to put her away.” But Jesus said to them, “For your hardness of heart he wrote you this commandment. But from the beginning of creation, `God made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.”
 
I saw this picture recently and literally laughed out loud. I had forgotten a few of these Bible stories. So it made me wonder, when was marriage re-defined to include ONLY one man and one woman who enter into marriage of their own free will? Who re-defined it to one man and one woman in free will, God? Or the society? Why did God sanction some of these alternative types of marriage?

Thanks.

(See picture for relevant Bible sections)
Hi Veritas,

We seem to have two basic situations described here: forced marriage and polygamy. Polygamy, while in no way anything that we would want to revive, does not violate the “one man one woman” rule, since the women are not in a marriage relationship to each other, but each has her own marriage to the man. In other words, there are two one-man one-woman marriages. Same with concubinage, which would combine marriage and slavery.

Forced marriage is even tougher to cover since there have been many profound changes in the way the social order works since nomad-tribe days described in the early Old Testement, and since we find the idea of being forcibly “taken” in marriage to be so repulsive (we women perhaps even more so). Even so, once the woman was established with the man and had borne children by him, there may have been very few practical alternatives (thinking about the economics of the time) to tolerating the relationship. Granting that I am not a historian, based on my reading of the women of the Bible it seems like the women of those primitive days would often prefer almost any marriage situation to that of nonmarriage (the only alternative for a rape victim). Christianity, by the way, did something great for women in elevating the status of permanent virginity.

All this was about the establishment of procreative relationships and the continuance of the human story, and this is true even where it was brutal and highly disrespectful of women. In contradistinction, “same-sex marriage” is about simply satisfiying sexual desires and having the government recognize that for some reason that totally escapes me.

I’ll say again that this is not an easy topic, and I hope that in covering it I have not given the impression of defending marriage practices that have always violated God’s plan for men and women, and which both the Church and modern law rightfully treat as heinous. Yet such matters are covered in Scripture, so I think they should be treated honestly. If anyone with a better background than I have has some better approach to the question, I would be delighted to read it.

God Bless,
Joan
 
To elaborate on the past post and the law in Deuteronomy, imagine the situation where a man had a vendetta against a family. What better way to do harm to the family than by raping one of the daughters, even if he had to take a punishment for it? If she was “ruined” by his act, he’s had his vengence on the entire family in a very effective way. Compelling him to take his victim as wife may have been a way to stop this damaging and potentially snowballing situation from gaining any foothold. Just my speculation, but a realistic one I think.
 
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