F
Fergal
Guest
Folks,
A quick question. I am gonna try to keep from using actual descriptions as I am aware of young eyes!!! Excuse me for using the broad terms and descriptions that follow .
I understand in usual circumstances that the marital act must finish with intercourse so as to be both pro-creative and unitive. Not that every act of intercourse will result in a pregnancy but that we be open to the possibility of pregnancy after intercourse if it be God’s will.
Now if a woman is pregnant, is it still necessary to complete the marriage act through intercourse? I mean there is no chance of conception since it conception is impossible. Not completing the act internally can hardly be seen as not taking part in the pro creative function since the pro creative function has occured? If both partners are involved, and the act is purposfully completed externally through cooperation of ones spouse it is still unitive right?
I understand and completely accept the Churchs teaching on the wrongs of avoiding conception out of pure vanity or doing something to contracept when the possibility of a conception is real simply because “it would ruin one’s social life”.
Contraception is totally impossible during the 9 months of pregnancy. During this time does it really matter whether the marital act finishes internally or not?
I need to know as I am quite confused in this area (as my post shows ). I would very much appreciate Church documents and teachings to be cited or referred to if at all possible.
I don’t really need personal opinions as I have too many of my own and they are confusing matters!!! I need to know solid Church teaching in this area. I can’t find anything.
A quick question. I am gonna try to keep from using actual descriptions as I am aware of young eyes!!! Excuse me for using the broad terms and descriptions that follow .
I understand in usual circumstances that the marital act must finish with intercourse so as to be both pro-creative and unitive. Not that every act of intercourse will result in a pregnancy but that we be open to the possibility of pregnancy after intercourse if it be God’s will.
Now if a woman is pregnant, is it still necessary to complete the marriage act through intercourse? I mean there is no chance of conception since it conception is impossible. Not completing the act internally can hardly be seen as not taking part in the pro creative function since the pro creative function has occured? If both partners are involved, and the act is purposfully completed externally through cooperation of ones spouse it is still unitive right?
I understand and completely accept the Churchs teaching on the wrongs of avoiding conception out of pure vanity or doing something to contracept when the possibility of a conception is real simply because “it would ruin one’s social life”.
Contraception is totally impossible during the 9 months of pregnancy. During this time does it really matter whether the marital act finishes internally or not?
I need to know as I am quite confused in this area (as my post shows ). I would very much appreciate Church documents and teachings to be cited or referred to if at all possible.
I don’t really need personal opinions as I have too many of my own and they are confusing matters!!! I need to know solid Church teaching in this area. I can’t find anything.