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StudentMI
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So I’ve been reading up on the social doctrine of the Church and I’m worried I found a contradiction between the two encyclicals in the thread title, namely on the role of property.
In 64. of Laborem Exercens, St John Paul II wrote about private property, “Christian tradition has never upheld this right as absolute and untouchable. On the contrary, it has always understood this right within the broader context of the right common to all to use the goods of the whole of creation: The right to private property is subordinated to the right to common use, to the fact that goods are meant for everyone.”
All well and good. But in Rerum Novarum, in numerous places, Leo XIII describes private property as a human right, and even says in 46., “We have seen that this great labor question cannot be solved save by assuming as a principle that private ownership must be held sacred and inviolable. The law, therefore, should favor ownership, and its policy should be to induce as many as possible of the people to become owners.”
If property is sacred and inviolable, how can it not be held as untouchable? I’m not proposing the texts contradict each other, but asking, do they?
In 64. of Laborem Exercens, St John Paul II wrote about private property, “Christian tradition has never upheld this right as absolute and untouchable. On the contrary, it has always understood this right within the broader context of the right common to all to use the goods of the whole of creation: The right to private property is subordinated to the right to common use, to the fact that goods are meant for everyone.”
All well and good. But in Rerum Novarum, in numerous places, Leo XIII describes private property as a human right, and even says in 46., “We have seen that this great labor question cannot be solved save by assuming as a principle that private ownership must be held sacred and inviolable. The law, therefore, should favor ownership, and its policy should be to induce as many as possible of the people to become owners.”
If property is sacred and inviolable, how can it not be held as untouchable? I’m not proposing the texts contradict each other, but asking, do they?