S
surritter
Guest
I’ve noticed that often the refrain for the responsorial Psalm is itself repeated within one of the verses, but sometimes the wording is slightly different and I’m wondering why.
For example, I’ll use the Psalm from a couple of weeks ago (Dec. 2, which used Psalm 23)… the response was “I shall live in the house of the Lord all the days of my life.” Yet in the last verse, the text was “I shall dwell in the house of the Lord for years to come.”
I’m not complaining – I’m just curious if there is a translation issue or any specific reason for this difference in the wording that sometimes happens in the Lectionary.
For example, I’ll use the Psalm from a couple of weeks ago (Dec. 2, which used Psalm 23)… the response was “I shall live in the house of the Lord all the days of my life.” Yet in the last verse, the text was “I shall dwell in the house of the Lord for years to come.”
I’m not complaining – I’m just curious if there is a translation issue or any specific reason for this difference in the wording that sometimes happens in the Lectionary.