A
adstrinity
Guest
I have heard that the Church says (& I think that my NAB Bible supports this) that this ISN’T about Mary because the woman cries out in pain during child birth & that is a direct result of sin. Since Mary was sinless, it couldn’t be her. It’s more probably Israel. Have you all heard this? Do you know the Church’s official stance on this?
(Sorry for posting a lot here lately, BUT, I have all these conflicting ideas & I want them purged so I can get back to worshiping God freely.)
(Sorry for posting a lot here lately, BUT, I have all these conflicting ideas & I want them purged so I can get back to worshiping God freely.)