B
BlueKnight1
Guest
Not trying to start a fight, but I did notice something that I think is worth pointing out and wanting someone to clarify.
A common rebuttal to sola fide is James 2:24. If that is the case, then shouldn’t it say sola fide in the verse? The verse in James uses “fide tantum.” I am not claiming to be a latin scholar, but the “fide tantum” in context appears to be describing faith that bears no fruit, for lack of a better term. Sola Fide on the other hand requires bearing fruit (at least among most confessional and academic protestants). So unless I am missing something, I think that there should be a different apologetic response, otherwise it’s either dishonest or misplaced.
If I am wrong in my observation, please show me, but that just been bugging me and I felt I should say something.
A common rebuttal to sola fide is James 2:24. If that is the case, then shouldn’t it say sola fide in the verse? The verse in James uses “fide tantum.” I am not claiming to be a latin scholar, but the “fide tantum” in context appears to be describing faith that bears no fruit, for lack of a better term. Sola Fide on the other hand requires bearing fruit (at least among most confessional and academic protestants). So unless I am missing something, I think that there should be a different apologetic response, otherwise it’s either dishonest or misplaced.
If I am wrong in my observation, please show me, but that just been bugging me and I felt I should say something.