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Matthias123
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How do I refute a protestant who claims that 1 Corinth 4:6-7 teaches sola scriptura?
I think that the first question that I would ask of the person is what writings is Paul refering to in this letter?How do I refute a protestant who claims that 1 Corinth 4:6-7 teaches sola scriptura?
(For Clarity: The Text referenced here is
6 Now these things, brethren, I have figuratively applied to myself and Apollos for your sakes, so that in us you may learn not to exceed what is written, so that no one of you will become arrogant in behalf of one against the other. 7 For who regards you as superior? What do you have that you did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as if you had not received it?
What traditions did Paul teach? Has the Church infallibly declared a single word spoken by Paul (or any other Apostle) that we do not have recorded in Scripture? Did Paul tell them that Mary was immaculately conceived? Did he instruct them to look to Pope Peter for guidance? What Apostolic Traditions has the Church infallibly declared were taught by Paul (or any other Apostle), and when did the Church make these infallible declarations?You can also ask your friend to explain this verse:
“So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to
the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or
by letter” (2 Thes 2:15)
As you mention below, the OT and NT need to be seen as a whole which is what the Church does. This is one reason that there are not “official” interpretations for every verse. Other reasons include the fact that much of the Bible can be understood on different levels and a passage may take on different nuances depending upon a particular situation.As a former Catholic and a believer in Sola Scriptura, I must compliment JRKH for an excellent side-step of the question. I would answer back thus, “Since the Church claims to infallibly interpret the Sacred Scriptures, what is the official, infallible interpretation of 1 Cor 4:6-7?” I might follow up with, “Of all the Scriptures we have today, how much has the Church infallibly interpreted?”, or even with, “If a particular verse has not been infallibly interpreted by the Church, then how can I know what a specific verse means?” Maybe another good question would be, “If the Church hasn’t infallibly interpreted a particular verse, and there are two different priests that interpret it in different ways, how can I know who is right?”
Kudos to you also for sidestepping. (Perhaps we should get a dance team together.However, just to give an answer to the side-step, I would remind you that God is the author of Scripture, and Scripture needs to be taken as a whole (Old and New Testament together). It is irrelevant whether Paul had just the Old Testament in mind when he wrote this epistle. He was moved by the Holy Spirit, and God certainly knows what is and what is not Scripture!
You bring up a good point in that it is difficult to know what the ECF’s taugth orally that was not written down. The problem is that you miss the broader point that, even the things written down need explanation. You totally dismiss the reality that the Early Church evolved into the structure and beliefs of today based upon the very beliefs, understandings and Interpretations of the Early Church fathers who were trained by the Apostles themselves.What traditions did Paul teach? Has the Church infallibly declared a single word spoken by Paul (or any other Apostle) that we do not have recorded in Scripture? Did Paul tell them that Mary was immaculately conceived? Did he instruct them to look to Pope Peter for guidance? What Apostolic Traditions has the Church infallibly declared were taught by Paul (or any other Apostle), and when did the Church make these infallible declarations?
So tell me, which heresy was stopped with the “infallible” declaration of the immaculate conception? Or the bodily assumption? Who were the heretics, and how has the “infallible” dogmatic declaration of this “apostolic tradition” stopped it?To your question about our infallible doctrines I believe there were many beliefs held by the church that were not necessarily declared infallible until a reason came that the doctrine needed to be defined clearly. (to prevent heresy).
In this, I agree with you! If Paul didn’t write about it, we cannot know everything he taught! And yet, you put your trust in a Church that claims to be able to infallibly identify and interpret these oral traditions. If they didn’t contradict written Scripture, I would still be Catholic.We cannot know everything Paul taught if he did not write about it. But we look to the church to carry forward the traditions.
Again, I agree. Sola Scriptura does not say everything they taught is written down. However, what is written down is sufficient (“All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, that the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.” 2 Tim 3:16-17 DR)I don’t think one can assume that everything the Apostles taught by word is in scripture as well. 8 of them never wrote anything that has been included in the New Testament.
When Jesus was temped in the wilderness, how did He answer? When asked why His disciples violated the “tradition of the elders” by not washing before eating, how did Jesus prove this was a tradition of men that violated the Word of God? What did Philip use to convince the Etheopian eunuch that Jesus was the promised Messiah? What did the Bereans search to prove what Paul taught was true? What was it that Timothy knew from childhood that can instruct one to salvation? I could go on, but the answer to all of these is the Scriptures!I don’t want to get too far off topic but I would like to invite Cachonga to explain to me how early Christians practiced a belief in sola scriptura.
Are you suggesting that there were no Scriptures available until 382, following the Council of Rome? Are you suggesting that the writings of the Apostles weren’t being copied and spread around prior to 382? Are you asserting that the ONLY thing the Christians Church could rely on prior to 382 was Sacred Tradition? Do you think Peter didn’t recognize Paul’s writings as being scripture (see 2 Peter 3:15-16)?The New Testament was not decided upon until the year 382 at the Council of Rome. Here the Catholic Church chose the books that were the authentic word of God to be included in the New Testament.
OK, so answer me this - I have seen other threads, and there are Catholics wanting to know if they have to believe in a literal Adam & Eve, if the 6 days of creation in Genesis are 6 littler, 24 hour days or not, did Noah’s flood really happen, and many other questions about the Scriptures. I find it disturbing that some of the Catholics who have responded seem to put more faith in Darwin than Moses (who was inspired by God). I find it highly dubious that just 60 years ago it was OK for Catholics to believe that Mary had been buried and is waiting for the resurrection, but in 1950 the Pope dogmatically declared that she was bodily assumed into heaven, and to not believe it is to be under the anathema of the Church. I could go on, but I hope I’ve made my point.As you mention below, the OT and NT need to be seen as a whole which is what the Church does. This is one reason that there are not “official” interpretations for every verse. Other reasons include the fact that much of the Bible can be understood on different levels and a passage may take on different nuances depending upon a particular situation.
Are you implying that God was surprised that these things happened?Kudos to you also for sidestepping. (Perhaps we should get a dance team together.)
So - Paul was prompted to write this because God knew that - at a future date - this letter would be included in the NT.
So - Did God also know that the formal canon of the Bible would be changed from 72 books to 66 books 1000 years after it was determined by the Councils of the Christian Church?
The problem with an “oral” tradition is there is no way to verify if it’s a true tradition or not (apart from Scripture, which Jesus used in the case of the Corban tradition of the Jews). The thing I like about the written Word is it can be looked at and compared to what is being taught. For example, I see nothing in Scripture to convince me Mary was bodily assumed into heaven. I readily acknowledge God could have done that, but I personally doubt it. Since there is no scriptural basis for this dogma, why is it a dogma? I agree that not everything Jesus said or did is in Scripture. I would also make that same claim for any biographical work of anyone. However, I would assert that what we DO HAVE recorded in Scripture is sufficient (as noted in 2 Tim 3:16-17).You bring up a good point in that it is difficult to know what the ECF’s taugth orally that was not written down. The problem is that you miss the broader point that, even the things written down need explanation. You totally dismiss the reality that the Early Church evolved into the structure and beliefs of today based upon the very beliefs, understandings and Interpretations of the Early Church fathers who were trained by the Apostles themselves.
So “Oral tradition” can and does have as much to do with “inflection” and "What does “apul mean here” as it does with something that was widley believed but not written down.
My condonleces to you for making a poor spiritual decision on leaving the Church Jesus Christ founded.As a former Catholic and a believer in Sola Scriptura, I must compliment JRKH for an excellent side-step of the question.
you could follow up with that, but the Church does not infallibly interpret certain passages of scriptures until the Church deems it necessary to do so. The fact is this passage doesn’t even imply Sola Scriptura, which states that Scripture is the sole (i.e. single, only) rule of faith. Why don’t you read 1 Tim 3:15 and fill me in why God wouldn’t just be more candid and say that the Scripture is the pillar and foundation, or bulwark of the Truth.I would answer back thus, “Since the Church claims to infallibly interpret the Sacred Scriptures, what is the official, infallible interpretation of 1 Cor 4:6-7?”
And i follow up with the Church HAS infallibly defined certain passages of Scripture. e.g. John 3:5, Matthew 16:18, and there are six more to my knowledge.I might follow up with, “Of all the Scriptures we have today, how much has the Church infallibly interpreted?”, or even with, “If a particular verse has not been infallibly interpreted by the Church, then how can I know what a specific verse means?”
We catholics don’t tend to interpret the Scripture passage by passage, but we do interpret it in its ENTIRE context, unlike all protestants.Maybe another good question would be, “If the Church hasn’t infallibly interpreted a particular verse, and there are two different priests that interpret it in different ways, how can I know who is right?”
an emphatic Amen brother!However, just to give an answer to the side-step, I would remind you that God is the author of Scripture, and Scripture needs to be taken as a whole (Old and New Testament together).
No, it is very important if Paul had “just the Old Testament in mind when he wrote this epistle” because that’s what it means when people say to read it in context.It is irrelevant whether Paul had just the Old Testament in mind when he wrote this epistle.
This statement gave absolutely no credibility to your previous statement.He was moved by the Holy Spirit, and God certainly knows what is and what is not Scripture!
So which “Oral Traditions” are the ones that “contradict Scripture”In this, I agree with you! If Paul didn’t write about it, we cannot know everything he taught! And yet, you put your trust in a Church that claims to be able to infallibly identify and interpret these oral traditions. If they didn’t contradict written Scripture, I would still be Catholic.
I see nothing in the above verse that says that Scripture alone is sufficient. If Scripture alone is sufficient, then why the Apostles, Paul, Timothy etc as teachers? Why didn’t Jesus write “The Book”Again, I agree. Sola Scriptura does not say everything they taught is written down. However, what is written down is sufficient (“All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, that the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.” 2 Tim 3:16-17 DR)
Indeed - OT Scriptures - So how do YOU know which books written after Jesus time were actually inspired of God and which were not?When Jesus was temped in the wilderness, how did He answer? When asked why His disciples violated the “tradition of the elders” by not washing before eating, how did Jesus prove this was a tradition of men that violated the Word of God? What did Philip use to convince the Etheopian eunuch that Jesus was the promised Messiah? What did the Bereans search to prove what Paul taught was true? What was it that Timothy knew from childhood that can instruct one to salvation? I could go on, but the answer to all of these is the Scriptures!
I suggest you do a bit of investigation. The reason that the Books of the Old and New Testament were canonized is because different parts of the Church were using different writings in their lituries. You may not be aware of it but the Shepard of Hermas enjoyed a wide popularity while the Book of Revelation was spurned in many areas. The reason that the Church assembled the canon was to clarify the situation for the Universal (Catholic ) Church.Are you suggesting that there were no Scriptures available until 382, following the Council of Rome? Are you suggesting that the writings of the Apostles weren’t being copied and spread around prior to 382? Are you asserting that the ONLY thing the Christians Church could rely on prior to 382 was Sacred Tradition? Do you think Peter didn’t recognize Paul’s writings as being scripture (see 2 Peter 3:15-16)?
I suppose I could answer this if I had been able to find a question.OK, so answer me this -
(Snipped foro length)
I could go on, but I hope I’ve made my point.
Are you implying that God was surprised that these things happened?Originally Posted by JRKH
Kudos to you also for sidestepping. (Perhaps we should get a dance team together.)
So - Paul was prompted to write this because God knew that - at a future date - this letter would be included in the NT.
So - Did God also know that the formal canon of the Bible would be changed from 72 books to 66 books 1000 years after it was determined by the Councils of the Christian Church?
But as I said earlier, the written word contains no “inflection” or “explanation” both of which are supplied by teachers who pass on their learning to their students. Just as Jesus did with the disciples.The problem with an “oral” tradition is there is no way to verify if it’s a true tradition or not (apart from Scripture, which Jesus used in the case of the Corban tradition of the Jews). The thing I like about the written Word is it can be looked at and compared to what is being taught.
Nor is there anything to say that she wasn’t. So there can be no “Contradiction”.For example, I see nothing in Scripture to convince me Mary was bodily assumed into heaven.
No Scriptural Basis - Wasn’t it Alijah who was assumed into heaven (sorry if my spelling is off or it was a different prophet.) Seems like a precedent to me.I readily acknowledge God could have done that, but I personally doubt it. Since there is no scriptural basis for this dogma, why is it a dogma?
I would agree with this so long as the Bible Scriptures are kept within the Tradition from which they sprang. That is the Apostolic teaching and traditions of the Church.I agree that not everything Jesus said or did is in Scripture. I would also make that same claim for any biographical work of anyone. However, I would assert that what we DO HAVE recorded in Scripture is sufficient (as noted in 2 Tim 3:16-17).
Cachonga,So tell me, which heresy was stopped with the “infallible” declaration of the immaculate conception? Or the bodily assumption? Who were the heretics, and how has the “infallible” dogmatic declaration of this “apostolic tradition” stopped it?
In this, I agree with you! If Paul didn’t write about it, we cannot know everything he taught! And yet, you put your trust in a Church that claims to be able to infallibly identify and interpret these oral traditions. If they didn’t contradict written Scripture, I would still be Catholic.
By saying that none of the reformers used this verse to prove sola scriptura!How do I refute a protestant who claims that 1 Corinth 4:6-7 teaches sola scriptura?
In fact, this verse can be used against the protestant notion of sola scriptura!How do I refute a protestant who claims that 1 Corinth 4:6-7 teaches sola scriptura?
I don’t think the Church claims to infallibly interpret Scripture. Some of the few infallible things in Church teaching are derived from Scripture, others depend on Tradition. The Church recognizes that there are varying ways to interpret Scripture, and that the Faith continues to develop in this regard.As a former Catholic and a believer in Sola Scriptura, I must compliment JRKH for an excellent side-step of the question. I would answer back thus, “Since the Church claims to infallibly interpret the Sacred Scriptures, what is the official, infallible interpretation of 1 Cor 4:6-7?” I might follow up with, “Of all the Scriptures we have today, how much has the Church infallibly interpreted?”, or even with, “If a particular verse has not been infallibly interpreted by the Church, then how can I know what a specific verse means?” Maybe another good question would be, “If the Church hasn’t infallibly interpreted a particular verse, and there are two different priests that interpret it in different ways, how can I know who is right?”
However, just to give an answer to the side-step, I would remind you that God is the author of Scripture, and Scripture needs to be taken as a whole (Old and New Testament together). It is irrelevant whether Paul had just the Old Testament in mind when he wrote this epistle. He was moved by the Holy Spirit, and God certainly knows what is and what is not Scripture!
What traditions did Paul teach? Has the Church infallibly declared a single word spoken by Paul (or any other Apostle) that we do not have recorded in Scripture? Did Paul tell them that Mary was immaculately conceived? Did he instruct them to look to Pope Peter for guidance? What Apostolic Traditions has the Church infallibly declared were taught by Paul (or any other Apostle), and when did the Church make these infallible declarations?
In fact, this verse can be used against the protestant notion of sola scriptura!
Let us assume “not to go beyond what is written” means not to go beyond what is written in Scripture.
Ok,
Where does Scripture say that it is the sole authority? (Where does Scripture say Sola Scriptura?) If you say sola scriptura, it means you’re going beyond what is written!
Also, scripture itself teaches that Tradition is authoritative and that the church has authority. The authority of Tradition and the Church comes from Jesus Christ, not from Scripture.
So in a sense, we Catholics don’t go beyond what is written. It is written that we must follow both scripture and tradition (2 Thess 2:15). It is also written that the church is the pillar and bulwark of the truth (1 Tim 3:15). So we turn to the church to tell us the truth regarding scripture and tradition!
So we are not going beyond what is written, it is the Protestants who are going beyond what is written when they say that scripture is the sole authority!![]()