T
The_Iambic_Pen
Guest
During my search for the Church, I have primarily attended Catholic and Orthodox churches. Every now and then, however, I have still attended Protestant churches, visiting my own spiritual background, as it were. Today was one such day.
As it turned out, today was communion Sunday. As many of you are probably aware, communion rarely occurs every Sunday in most Protestant traditions. In fact, even once a month is rare. Nevertheless, today was the day. The pastor preached from 1 Corinthians 11:23-30. In keeping with the predominant Protestant theology, he referred to the bread and wine/grape juice (they had both) as being symbolic.
And then came the part that really caught my attention. He said how wondrous it would be when we are in Heaven, and we no longer have a symbol, but are face to face with Christ Himself. I thought to myself, “Catholics believe they have this already! How wondrous that is if it is true.” Well, I don’t think I thought those exact words, but it was something like that…
Anyway, through reading the Early Church Fathers and studying both Catholicism and Orthodoxy, I see that the doctrine of the Real Presence has been universally held since the beginning. Therefore, I have essentially accepted it on an intellectual level, seeing no real support for the symbolic view. My acceptance of this idea still hasn’t permeated my whole being yet, however, though I believe I will get there in time.
He then went on to preach on the importance of examining oneself and confessing all sin to God before partaking of communion. From a Protestant perspective, I thought what he said was very good, and I think Catholics would agree (though adding that this confession should take place during the sacrament of reconciliation). However, he used a (to me) new interpretation of verse 29. In the RSV:CE, the verse says:
Any thoughts on either of these two interpretations? Which one, if either, has been traditionally used?
I thank you all in advance for your responses. I also ask that you would all pray for me as I try to discern the truth on the matter of the Eucharist. Thanks and God bless!
As it turned out, today was communion Sunday. As many of you are probably aware, communion rarely occurs every Sunday in most Protestant traditions. In fact, even once a month is rare. Nevertheless, today was the day. The pastor preached from 1 Corinthians 11:23-30. In keeping with the predominant Protestant theology, he referred to the bread and wine/grape juice (they had both) as being symbolic.
And then came the part that really caught my attention. He said how wondrous it would be when we are in Heaven, and we no longer have a symbol, but are face to face with Christ Himself. I thought to myself, “Catholics believe they have this already! How wondrous that is if it is true.” Well, I don’t think I thought those exact words, but it was something like that…
He then went on to preach on the importance of examining oneself and confessing all sin to God before partaking of communion. From a Protestant perspective, I thought what he said was very good, and I think Catholics would agree (though adding that this confession should take place during the sacrament of reconciliation). However, he used a (to me) new interpretation of verse 29. In the RSV:CE, the verse says:
The pastor said this meant that anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the sins within one’s own self and confessing them ate and drank judgment upon himself. The interpretation I had always heard before was that anyone who ate and drank without discerning Christ’s body ate and drank judgment upon himself.For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself.
Any thoughts on either of these two interpretations? Which one, if either, has been traditionally used?
I thank you all in advance for your responses. I also ask that you would all pray for me as I try to discern the truth on the matter of the Eucharist. Thanks and God bless!