Our pastor has described the use of the term “Son of Man” as having to do with the Hebrew tradition stemming from the interpretation of the first commandment, “You shall not use the Lord’s Name in vain.” I have some conservative Jewish friends and they use commonly as a closing in their emails G-d bless, I assume due to this commandment. It is kind of inspiring, how sacred the name of God is to the Hebrew culture and tradition, especially when I hear it thrown around so carelessly. So, to my understanding, to answer your question, my recollection of my pastor’s homilies is that “Son of Man” was a traditional Hebrew expression that identified the Messiah without using the Lord’s Name. CAF Friends who are more learned than I in this matter, am I missing anything?