Son of Man

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What is the significance of Jesus referring to himself as the “Son of Man”. What does this phrase imply/mean? I once heard that there are multiple meanings for this phrase depending on the context used. However, I forgot what the explanation was.

Thanks
 
James 2:24,

I found this catholic.com/thisrock/2002/0212qq.asp on Catholic Answers, if you scroll down there is a quick answer to a quick question.

I bet that there are posters who know heaps and heaps about this term, however, so I await their posts along with you!

VC
p.s. I am praying for you. God is with you.
 
James, the “Son of Man” is one of those terms that is just loaded with meaning (different emphasis pointing in the same direction) Of coarse, there is the meaning or refrence to a person’s humanity - it’s another way of saying he’s human. But in a biblical context and building from the Book of Daniel, there are strong ties with the “Son of Man” as Messiah, King and Jugde - all with strong apocalyptic connections. Here, apocalyptic in the sense of the final time - end of the earth, which both in Daniel and Revelation is something Believers should be looking forward to because it means the final judgement and hopefully our resurrected bodies will be reunited with our souls eternally in heaven. The “Son of Man” is the term, I think, Jesus used most often for himself. To keep it short, the way He used itseemed to combine the two common understanding amoung the jews of his time concerning the Messiah. Some held the Messiah would be a conquering hero and would rid Israel of the Roman and replace the Roman empire with the House of David and Israel. Other saw the Messiah as the Judge at the final times. Jesus in the “Son of Man” was able to combine both concepts but in a totally unique way to express the Nature of His true Messiahship - He was a conquer but He conquered through his humility, service and ultimately through His Paschal Sacrifice and Resurrection. He is the one who would usher in the final times but as we believe this will be permeated with God’s mercy for those who don’t reject God’s Love. A final note Stephen at his death used the term “Son of Man” clearly to express Jesus’ divinity.
 
So when Jesus says, “So that you may know that the Son of Man has the power to forgive sins…”

Does he mean that human beings have the power to forgive sins?
or
The Messiah has the power to forgive sins?

I heard it said that he meant human beings (those given that power of course). If this is the case, then this is a powerful defense of confession.
 
Given that we already have a power defense of confession with John 20:23, it would seem that Jesus is saying that the Messiah has the authority to forgive sins. In the aformentioned verse, He is then passing that authority along to the Apostles. This happens much later than the exchange you are describing, and wouldn’t have been necessary if Jesus meant “humans” by “Son of Man” in the earlier dialogue.
 
James, your question about Jesus’ using the “Son of Man” as he was about to forgive sins is an expression of his messiahship but again it has to be understood differently that what was the current expectation. He was coming with power that was real but different, it was rooted in God’s active presence in the world which was far different than the political power people were expecting and for those who were looking for a Messiah who would be the Judge at the end of time, He, by using the term “Son of Man” when forgiving sins showed he was the Final Judge but His justice was wholely permeated with God’s Mercy (mercy that would forgive what we human’s think is unforgivable).
 
James_2:24:
What is the significance of Jesus referring to himself as the “Son of Man”. What does this phrase imply/mean? I once heard that there are multiple meanings for this phrase depending on the context used. However, I forgot what the explanation was.

Thanks
This is my take on the “Son of Man” question.

The Hebrews referred to angels and apparently demons as “Sons of God” NOT to reflect holiness, but rather to reflect the absence of non-God parents for non-God spiritual beings, unlike us flesh-and-bone types, who have flesh-and-bone parents between us and God. See Job 1:6, where angels and apparently Satan himself are referred to as “Sons of God.” See Genesis 6:1-2, where bad-guy “Sons of God” see, grab and rape as many “earth girls” as they can get their hands on.

Because of a Hebrew/Jewish awareness that a “Son of God” was a spiritual being with no parental forebears between the “Son of God” and God, Himself, Jesus, aware that He was the Incarnation “hybrid,” referred to Himself as “the Son of Man” to “hybridize” the terminology – Jesus was both a “Son of God” and a flesh-and-bone type with human forebears.
 
A couple of years ago, I was reading through the Psalms. And in one them, the expression “son of man” appeared with a footnote that carried a Hebrew translation or more properly, the Hebrew original from which the English was translated ]. Anyway, the Hebrew was “ben Adam”.

So maybe, the expression is not so much “son of man” as “son of the origin of the human race” ?

It does seem to put a different slant on the expression.

Can’t remember which psalm it was.
 
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