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BlueWolf03
Guest
I have a question that has been burning in my mind for a long time, and I would like to have some help to better understand this…
The reason is because I was raised in a fundemental Protestant home and was taught the whole Rapture doctorine. Now I am a Catholic Convert, and I don’t really believe in the whole theory, yet I am still struggling with some of the verses that most Protestants will use in defense of their belief of the Rapure, which is in St. Luke 17: 20-37.
I would appreciate it if anyone would take the time to give me a few pointers in how I can better understand why Christ said what he said in those verses in light of the fact that the whole Rapture ideal is not scripturally sound, from what I understand.
Thanks!
The reason is because I was raised in a fundemental Protestant home and was taught the whole Rapture doctorine. Now I am a Catholic Convert, and I don’t really believe in the whole theory, yet I am still struggling with some of the verses that most Protestants will use in defense of their belief of the Rapure, which is in St. Luke 17: 20-37.
I would appreciate it if anyone would take the time to give me a few pointers in how I can better understand why Christ said what he said in those verses in light of the fact that the whole Rapture ideal is not scripturally sound, from what I understand.
Thanks!