R
ransom14
Guest
We all know that St. Thomas occasionally acknowledges that this or that point “cannot be demonstrated philosophically.” He does this when speaking of the eternality of the world, among other things. My question is this:
I read somewhere (I think it was in Gilson, or Rickaby, but it really doesn’t matter) that there was some sort of council, decree, or syllabus of principles or points that did not belong to philosophy, and which St. Thomas may have been acting in accordance with when he says these things.
I’d really love to find this document/decree/declamation, whatever it is, so that I can compare its “list” of points that “do not belong to philosophy” to Aquinas’s work and see if he is following it or if he is just using his own reasoning to decide what can or cannot be demonstrated.
Does anyone know what the author I stumbled across may have been referring to? I just cannot seem to remember where I read it, but was hoping it would ring a bell so someone else.
I read somewhere (I think it was in Gilson, or Rickaby, but it really doesn’t matter) that there was some sort of council, decree, or syllabus of principles or points that did not belong to philosophy, and which St. Thomas may have been acting in accordance with when he says these things.
I’d really love to find this document/decree/declamation, whatever it is, so that I can compare its “list” of points that “do not belong to philosophy” to Aquinas’s work and see if he is following it or if he is just using his own reasoning to decide what can or cannot be demonstrated.
Does anyone know what the author I stumbled across may have been referring to? I just cannot seem to remember where I read it, but was hoping it would ring a bell so someone else.