R
rcwitness
Guest
Hey Edwin,That’s one possible explanation, but I find it a stretch. Also, Aquinas doesn’t go there. He admits that baptism in the name of Jesus occurred in the earliest Church, but says that it is no longer valid. I find that unconvincing.
Just to be clear–I absolutely believe that baptism should use the Trinitarian formula. I simply hesitate to say that baptism in the name of Jesus is invalid baptism. Any other formula clearly is something other than Christian baptism.
Edwin
I found your post on the name Catholic Church and Baptism interesting. I wouldn’t disagree with anything really.
In fact, it touches on one very confusing aspect of the Catholic interpretation of the flesh and blood discourse in John 6. If Jesus is intending to refer to His Mass Eucharist, then how do we acknowledge believers in separated churches can have the life of the Holy Spirit in them?
But as for your reference to Scriptural Baptism in only the name of Jesus, what passages are you referring to? Isn’t there only one instance of this in Acts, where Peter and John were sent in order to Confirm them and lay hands for the reception of the Holy Spirit?