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Hello,
Is suffering redemptive when one is not in a state of grace? Thanks, Tim
Is suffering redemptive when one is not in a state of grace? Thanks, Tim
I just submited the question. We will see. Thanks, TimTim -
This is an excellent question, and I think you should post it in the “Ask an Apologist” forum. I’d like to know the answer as well.
******Q: My friend said that Christ died once for all, so we don’t need redemptive suffering souls. How should I respond? ******
A: A Scripture verse to point your friend to is Colossians 1:24: “Now I [Paul] rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church.”
Paul doesn’t mean that Christ’s death is insufficient for universal redemption. He is simply saying that his own incorporation into the mystical body of Christ (the Church) means that his sufferings can be helpful for other members of the body (the Colossian Christians to whom he is writing). They are helpful only because Paul is united to Christ in his Church and is offering his sufferings to Christ for the sake of the Church.
In the same way, suffering souls can similarly offer up their sufferings for the benefit of others.
***A: A Scripture verse to point your friend to is Colossians 1:24: “Now I [Paul] rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church.”
I have initiated a thread into the Apologetics Forum which asks a question indirectly connected to this thread but referring to the above quotation. This question has long puzzled me as to whether St. Paul is stating that Christ’s sufferings were insufficient or not - and the implications. Here’s the link for any who may be interested in the question also:Paul doesn’t mean that Christ’s death is insufficient for universal redemption.***