The Church Fathers on Papal Infallibility

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Guanophore #20
Statements such as this from Unam Sanctum:
"Furthermore, we declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff. "
Seem to raise the knapp on those who are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome.
As Fr John A Hardon S.J. points out, as “solemnly defined”, it “represents traditional Catholic dogma on the Church’s necessity for salvation.”

As we know all who are saved are saved through Christ’s Catholic Church whether they know it or not.
 
I am not debating that Peter was placed above the rest of the apostles in one way or another, I am building a counter-argument to show HOW Peter was placed ahead of the other apostles. The orthodox stance is that Peter (and in turn, his see) was the first, but among equals. First yes, but still equal, as opposed to the catholic stance that Peter has total universal primacy, Of being totally higher and not ‘first but equal’.
Equivocation. It has the ring of truth, but means nothing.

Where in the world of men do we have an example of first among equals?

It is a totally heterodox notion, not orthodox, nor is it Biblical.

Remember the Orthodox didn’t ALWAYS define primacy this way. For a thousand years they were of one mind with the Latin Church on the Primacy of Peter. It was to justify their schism that they developed their equivocation.
 
I am not debating that Peter was placed above the rest of the apostles in one way or another, I am building a counter-argument to show HOW Peter was placed ahead of the other apostles. The orthodox stance is that Peter (and in turn, his see) was the first, but among equals. First yes, but still equal, as opposed to the catholic stance that Peter has total universal primacy, Of being totally higher and not ‘first but equal’.
Which part of the flock was excluded when Jesus said “feed my sheep”?

Which of his brethren did Christ exclude when he commanded Peter to strengthen them?
 
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