S
SL20
Guest
After reading a previous thread about the Church never officially closing the canon, I began to think…why wasn’t the Didache considered canonical? Does it have to do with it’s relative recent discovery? When compiling the inspiried books, I would think the early Church would have had access to the Didache? Could the early Church, not foreseeing any major schisms (at least not in the near future), not have included it due to the fact that it was always a basic understanding that the Eucharist, Baptism, etc. were established by Jesus Himself and were ment to be essentials in His Church?
Even just reading through it as a historical document, I believe it’s one of the best writings which proves that when concerning the sacraments, and Church teaching…not much has changed in 2000 years.
thanks for any replies
Even just reading through it as a historical document, I believe it’s one of the best writings which proves that when concerning the sacraments, and Church teaching…not much has changed in 2000 years.
thanks for any replies