M
Melchior
Guest
I have noticed in my interaction with Orthodox and of course Catholics that this verse is often used in a way that puzzles me.
Everytime I hear someone reference the concept it is defensive as if the gates of Hell are attacking the Church and the Church will not be overcome by said gates. But ‘gates’ by there very nature are defensive not offensive. Isn’t the concept that Jesus was conveying to Peter really that the Church is storming Hell and the Church will smash through the gates of Hell?
If the phrase were “The armies of Hell will not prevail” I would understand the common usage. But gates don’t attack, they are attacked.
Any thoughts?
Mel
Everytime I hear someone reference the concept it is defensive as if the gates of Hell are attacking the Church and the Church will not be overcome by said gates. But ‘gates’ by there very nature are defensive not offensive. Isn’t the concept that Jesus was conveying to Peter really that the Church is storming Hell and the Church will smash through the gates of Hell?
If the phrase were “The armies of Hell will not prevail” I would understand the common usage. But gates don’t attack, they are attacked.
Any thoughts?
Mel