Except that the first attribution to Matthew was by Papias writing in the late first century and quoted by Eusebius, where he clearly states Matthew wrote it in the “Hebrew dialect:”
Therefore Matthew put the oracles (λόγια) in an ordered arrangement (συνετάξατο) in the Hebrew dialect (Ἑβραίδι διαλέκτω), and each person translated (ἡρμήνευσε) them as best he could.
This means the Matthew Gospel would have been written prior to 80 AND given the little said on the destruction of Jerusalem where the Gospel (24) only barely reports what Jesus said regarding the Temple being destroyed.
If the Gospel were written later than 70, the perennial question is why wasn’t more said to connect Jesus’ words to the Temple being destroyed?
