rianredd1088:
Ok, so why is it that we have these books when the Jews didn’t have them as sacred scripture? I don’t understand how we could just “Add” books.
We didn’t just “Add” books. The deuterocanonical books were written in Greek, since Greek was the primary literate language in the 1st century BC. They were part of the Greek-translated Bible called the Septuagint. In Jesus’ time, those 5 books were commonly accepted throughout most of the Jewish world, and in fact, many of the times that Jesus quotes or references scripture in the Gospels refer to those books.
There was a small group of Jewish scholars that met late in the first century. They decided to drop the books for two main reasons. First and foremost, they were reacting to the widespread growth of this new movement called Christianity, and explicitly removed the books because they support Catholic teaching. Second, they also used the reason, some say excuse, that they limited the books to only those books written in Hebrew.
Thus, the Church has pretty consistently maintained (with some internal debate) that Jesus and the Apostles treated those books as scripture and they should be included in the Old Testament Canon. Obviously, why would we let post-Jesus Jews try to define scripture when the Church itself has that authority.
Before anyone starts rolling grenades under the tent, I have tried to give a very brief, high-level overview. So don’t start taking me to task about names, dates, quotes from documents. This isn’t meant as a “scholarly treatise”.