It seems you are simply being evasive. As I have pointed out the Church uses the law courts and does not enjoin believers from using them. Indeed, the Church has founded law schools at most of its universities and no where does it tell believers not to make use of the courts to settle disputes among themselves. There is NOTHING in the Catechism that enjoins us from using the courts. As noted there are quite a few cases right now of priests suing to restore their good names against Catholics. No bishop or pope has said they cannot do that. In St. Paul’s day he was concerned because the courts in those days meted out a lot of injustice and it was injuring the Christian community. Courts today are somewhat better though far from perfect.
The Church makes distinctions between Paul’s day and ours. There are passages in St. Paul such as in Ephesians, Philemon, Colossians etc. in which Paul tolerates the existence of slavery. The Church today condemns slavery, as it did at Vatican II. Are we then to think that the Church is wrong and we must revert to St. Paul’s day??
Find a single moral theologian who agrees with your interpretation of this passage from Corinthians. I don’t know of any. As a previous poster noted, your approach is Protestant.
C.
In 2008, the Vatican introduced 7 new deadly sins. I wonder whether all these new sins are recorded in the CCC. I don’t think the CCC contains everything.
For sure, the bulk of the NT is made up of the Pauline epistles which were either addressed to specific individuals or to certain Christian communities at that time. True, society has changed (really changed) and not everything that St. Paul instructed still applies today. So how do we know what applies and what doesn’t?
For me, whatever appears in the liturgy rings a bell in my head. True, the Church is the authentic interpreter of Scripture. If I am aware of the Church’s interpretation of a given passage, then I will stick to it. In the absence of a public interpretation from the Church, I will try to interpret a passage by myself with the help of
Bible comments, homilies––from priests, who by their very nature, have the power to interpret Holy Scripture, and others––like asking the opinion of others on a forum like this.
My understanding is that, there are different senses of Scripture. The literal (which is the initial stage, the foundation) and the spiritual senses. The literal sense of the passage above is very clear. My understanding of the
moral sense (spiritual) of Scripture is that,
it draws warnings against sin and vice from Scripture,
as well as inspirations to pursue holiness and purity. And as I said before, there is a reason why we have such passages in the liturgy.
The Holy Spirit is trying to tell us something and that is what we have to decipher from such passages.
[BIBLEDRB]1 Cor 6:7[/BIBLEDRB]
“A fault”… Lawsuits can hardly ever be without a fault, on the
one side or the other; and
oftentimes on both sides. (Challoner)
I agree that the courts today are far more better than in the past but that’s not really my concern. A lot more can be drawn from the passage (1 Cor 1,4-8) besides the calibre of secular courts.
What I find funny is how you and the other poster attribute my interpretation to that of a protestant. It’s not my interpretation per se. It’s my understanding of the resources I have come across re the passage.
[SIGN]I do welcome other interpretations. That’s more or less the aim of this thread. [/SIGN](And not really about how courts function in different parts of the globe––not my concern.)