N
NSmith
Guest
My question arises based on a new awareness that I’ve found about the principle of self-defense. As far as I know if someone is killed in self-defense the only way that it is not considered murderous is if the killing was accidental. I am not sure in what sense accidental is used, and if I’m wrong I’d welcome a correction.
CCC 2263 - The legitimate defense of persons and societies is not an exception to the prohibition against the murder of the innocent that constitutes intentional killing. “The act of self-defense can have a double effect: the preservation of one’s own life; and the killing of the aggressor. . . . The one is intended, the other is not.”
My question is if I utilize a weapon, either a bludgeon, a knife, or a gun, in order of increasing lethality, at what point does any death that may occur as a result become “intended.” Basically, what weapons are morally licit to personally own and become proficient in the use of for the purposes of defense.
I assume that the circumstances don’t change the principle. So even if an aggressor has a gun and intends to kill you, you may not intentionally kill him.
CCC 2263 - The legitimate defense of persons and societies is not an exception to the prohibition against the murder of the innocent that constitutes intentional killing. “The act of self-defense can have a double effect: the preservation of one’s own life; and the killing of the aggressor. . . . The one is intended, the other is not.”
My question is if I utilize a weapon, either a bludgeon, a knife, or a gun, in order of increasing lethality, at what point does any death that may occur as a result become “intended.” Basically, what weapons are morally licit to personally own and become proficient in the use of for the purposes of defense.
I assume that the circumstances don’t change the principle. So even if an aggressor has a gun and intends to kill you, you may not intentionally kill him.