'The' Only Child - A non-Scriptural Angle

  • Thread starter Thread starter happilycatholic
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
It sounds to me like you merely want to argue. I never said having siblings is scandalous. And Christ “becoming” flesh and blood means He’s not flesh and blood until He becomes so during Transubstantiation so there is no earthly essence of Him here until that point at every Mass that the Eucharist is celebrated. Otherwise we wouldn’t have Transubstantiation.

HC



 
It sounds to me like you merely want to argue. I never said having siblings is scandalous. And Christ “becoming” flesh and blood means He’s not flesh and blood until He becomes so during Transubstantiation so there is no earthly essence of Him here until that point at every Mass that the Eucharist is celebrated. Otherwise we wouldn’t have Transubstantiation.

HC



In Post #4, you used the word “scandal” to refer to Mary and Joseph having a normal marriage and having other children. If that’s not what you meant, then I misunderstood. What did you mean by “scandal” in that statement?
 
It sounds to me like you merely want to argue. I never said having siblings is scandalous. And Christ “becoming” flesh and blood means He’s not flesh and blood until He becomes so during Transubstantiation so there is no earthly essence of Him here until that point at every Mass that the Eucharist is celebrated. Otherwise we wouldn’t have Transubstantiation.

HC



Sorry to barge in Happily but I don’t see the reasoning behind saying what earthly existence of Christ do we have today.

Perhaps you will recall that Christ HIMSELF said that where 2 or 3 are gathered in HIS name HE is there among them. Christ is present spiritually in our lives everyday. This argument of an earthly element being left doesn’t really makes sense or necessitate anything.
 
Yeah, I would suggest Mary and the Holy Spirit were not spouses.
And your proof for this is…
Your humanistic argument would fall flat on its face in Jewish Law and thought, because Mary being betrothed to Joseph, and being the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, would indeed be “adulterous” under your supposed definition.
Hmm, I thought I was talking about spiritual marriage. You must have missed that.
In fact, since the Father is Mary’s father as well as Jesus’, not only would it be adulterous, but incestuous. Don’t you see where this slippery slope takes us? You can’t apply these human arguments to the relationship of Mary the Holy Spirit.
How is talking about true marriage as being a spiritual thing “humanistic”?? Marriage is used to describe our relationship with God is it not? Jesus is described as the “Bridegroom” and the Church as the Bride that he prepares for the wedding feast.

Perhaps you don’t grasp it because you think marriage can only *be *a “humanistic” thing. Hence your insistence that Mary and Joseph had other children.
I find it highly likely that the church is indeed incorrect that Mary remained a virgin all her life.
Highly unlikely. Based on one line of scripture, which has been misinterpreted. Yeah, the church is incorrect.:rolleyes:
 
Sorry to barge in Happily but I don’t see the reasoning behind saying what earthly existence of Christ do we have today.

Perhaps you will recall that Christ HIMSELF said that where 2 or 3 are gathered in HIS name HE is there among them. Christ is present spiritually in our lives everyday. This argument of an earthly element being left doesn’t really makes sense or necessitate anything.
**There is no barging in here, it’s a forum discussion-type thing. **

**I wasn’t aware of any requirement that the discussion here be necessary. IMHO there are lots of unecessary and/or senseless discussions on this forum. Of course, I’m not bold (I’m using my polite-ness here) enough to point those out to the poster, but to each his own I guess. **

That said, I don’t think it’s necessary either. Important, maybe a bit interesting, but nonethless “unecessary”.

Sorry we bothered you.
 
In Post #4, you used the word “scandal” to refer to Mary and Joseph having a normal marriage and having other children. If that’s not what you meant, then I misunderstood. What did you mean by “scandal” in that statement?
Here’s my statement:

I would think that any earthly scandal with respect to the Holy Family would bring shame on the Family. Take for instance the question of whether the supposed subsequent children of Mary were Joeseph’s or because some believe he was in his eighties, they may be someone else’s?

Here’s the potential scandal:

**whether the supposed subsequent children of Mary were Joeseph’s **

**Now, can you honestly say that if Mary and Joseph had subsequent children this may not be a scandal? First of all, no one would have control over a potential scandal. If the poeple started it, it would take off like a rocket. Then 2000 years later people would be appearing on the Today Show making claims that they are direct descendants of The Holy Family and then there would be the other side trying to argue that they weren’t. **

Do you not see that as a scandal? I mean why do you think it’s NOT happening today? BECAUSE THERE ARE NO DESCENDANTS OF THE HOLY FAMILY.

If there are, where are they? If there EVER were, where’s mention of them? What are their names?


**The scandal would not be the people. It would be the arguing back and forth and the sin it would bring with it! I don’t understand how folks can not see this. **
 
It would be if the children were Joseph’s (or anyone else’s) and not God’s own.

Mary is the spouse of the Holy spirit. Yes, she was betrothed to Joseph before the Annunciation. But an earthly ceremony is only symbolic of the spiritual marriage of “two becoming one” the fruit of which is children and the reason why marriages are not final until consummated. The spiritual union of the Holy Spirit and Mary supersedes the earthly symbolic union of Mary and Joseph. Therefore, any children would be a product of an adulterous affair. Or are you suggesting Mary was not the spouse of the Holy Spirit? In which case, Jesus was conceived outside of marriage. It has to be one or the other if Mary did indeed have other children. That, or the Church is correct in that Mary remained a virgin her whole life.
Mary could not be the spouse of the Holy Spirit. If that were the case then why would the Angel tell Joseph to proceed with the wedding? In the Jewish culture it’s not possible for a man to proceed with the marriage of a woman once there has been a sexual union unless the 2nd man receives permission from the 1st. Once permission is granted not only can a marriage take place but sex can be a part of it. In Mary’s case the most important thing is that she would still be a virgin for Joseph.
 
Mary could not be the spouse of the Holy Spirit. If that were the case then why would the Angel tell Joseph to proceed with the wedding? In the Jewish culture it’s not possible for a man to proceed with the marriage of a woman once there has been a sexual union unless the 2nd man receives permission from the 1st. Once permission is granted not only can a marriage take place but sex can be a part of it. In Mary’s case the most important thing is that she would still be a virgin for Joseph.
Since there was no sexual union in the first place, why would Joseph need permission? Besides, are you saying God was required to follow the Jewish cultural custom and give permission?

And speaking of custom, In the Protoevangelium of James, a document written in the first century, Mary took a vow perpetual virginity so as to be a servant in the temple. Joseph would be expected to respect this vow. So without using scripture, as the title of this thread insists, you could just read the Protoevangelium of James.
 
OK - then how many are explicit?
From Matthew 1:18 until Matthew 25 we get a clear picture of what kind of relationship this was supposed to be. Matthew 1:18 first tells us that Mary was espoused to Joseph but that before they came together she was found with a child. The word used for coming together is synerchomai which literally means conjugal cohabitation. So Matthew makes it clear that Mary becomes pregnant before her and Joseph had sex. This flat out shows that she did not take a vow as the story would be quite different. If she had taken a vow Matthew wouldn’t have said before they came together showing he expected them to have sex, as there would be no sex.

The following verses tell us that Joseph pondered a quiet divorce instead of public charges to not disgrace Mary and her family. Again if Mary had taken a vow then the Temple priests would have been involved. Breaking a vow to GOD is severe and we read nothing of this at all. Instead Matthew shows us that Mary’s pregnancy is a violation of her betrothal contract to Joseph.

Given that the Angel tells Joseph to move forward with the wedding shows that he has GOD’s blessing. Since the normal betrothal contract is about a year Joseph cannot possibly fulfill the sexual end of the Kiddushin (nisu 'in) because Mary is still pregnant. Therefore Matthew tells us Joseph does not know her until after Christ is born. To the Jewish audience this makes complete sense. Matthew is just confirming that they did not consummate the marriage while Mary was still pregnant. They waited until after.

PEACE
 
From Matthew 1:18 until Matthew 25 we get a clear picture of what kind of relationship this was supposed to be. Matthew 1:18 first tells us that Mary was espoused to Joseph but that before they came together she was found with a child. The word used for coming together is synerchomai which literally means conjugal cohabitation. So Matthew makes it clear that Mary becomes pregnant before her and Joseph had sex. This flat out shows that she did not take a vow as the story would be quite different. If she had taken a vow Matthew wouldn’t have said before they came together showing he expected them to have sex, as there would be no sex.

The following verses tell us that Joseph pondered a quiet divorce instead of public charges to not disgrace Mary and her family. Again if Mary had taken a vow then the Temple priests would have been involved. Breaking a vow to GOD is severe and we read nothing of this at all. Instead Matthew shows us that Mary’s pregnancy is a violation of her betrothal contract to Joseph.

Given that the Angel tells Joseph to move forward with the wedding shows that he has GOD’s blessing. Since the normal betrothal contract is about a year Joseph cannot possibly fulfill the sexual end of the Kiddushin (nisu 'in) because Mary is still pregnant. Therefore Matthew tells us Joseph does not know her until after Christ is born. To the Jewish audience this makes complete sense. Matthew is just confirming that they did not consummate the marriage while Mary was still pregnant. They waited until after.

PEACE
For answers to this post, perhaps you could start by locating the many, many threads that have gone over it. especially the 'Knowing her" part.

But this thread is about the “non-scriptural” part.

For non-scriptural, try reading the Protoevangelium of James for starters.
 
Since there was no sexual union in the first place, why would Joseph need permission? Besides, are you saying God was required to follow the Jewish cultural custom and give permission?
He doesn’t need permission. That’s the point. The Angel tells Joseph not to fear moving forward with the wedding because Mary conceived through the power of the Holy Spirit. This meant that she was still a virgin. When a Jewish woman married she was expected to be a virgin. Claiming the virginity of a woman meant that she was your wife. Unless you paid the family money. Study the Torah on this and you will see.

As far as GOD needing to follow Jewish custom? I would say no since HE is GOD. But given that HE created the Jewish custom why wouldn’t HE follow it since HE was dealing with 2 Jewish people?
And speaking of custom, In the Protoevangelium of James, a document written in the first century, Mary took a vow perpetual virginity so as to be a servant in the temple. Joseph would be expected to respect this vow. So without using scripture, as the title of this thread insists, you could just read the Protoevangelium of James.
Oh no. Please don’t cite the Infancy Gospel of James. This work was never accepted by the early church as either inspired or historically accurate.

It directly contradicts Matthew’s account. Given that Matthew is canonical and Protoevang not this has no basis. The infancy Gospel of James tells us that Joseph was furious at Mary when he discovered her pregnancy because he knew she violated her vow to GOD. Matthew tells us that Joseph pondered a divorce quietly so he wouldn’t bring disgrace to Mary’s family. 2 very different stories. The Protoevang tells us Mary and Joseph had to walk in the desert to prove their innocence. Where is that in Matthew? The Protoevang tells us Joseph had 2 sons travel with them to Bethlehem. Yet when Matthew cites the need to return to Bethlehem for the census he never mentions Joseph children traveling with them. I could go on and on.

PEACE
 
For answers to this post, perhaps you could start by locating the many, many threads that have gone over it. especially the 'Knowing her" part.
Yes and I have participated in them. They get old and the Catholic argument just doesn’t work.
But this thread is about the “non-scriptural” part.
For non-scriptural, try reading the Protoevangelium of James for starters.
I’ve read it and as commented in another response it holds no water. The Infancy Gospel of James as it is otherwise known was never accepted by the church as neither inspired nor historically accurate. It’s been dated to the mid and possibly the late 2nd century so no one knows what James they are trying to imitate.

I would ask you to show me non-scriptural evidence from an Early Church Father that supports the perpetual virginity of Mary. Now when I say ECF I mean someone from the late 1st century to the 2nd century. People who were close to the Apostles and would have knowledge of this. Namely Polycarp, Ignatius, Clement etc. Fact remains you will not find anything until the mid to late 4th century. The first and 2nd century church fathers understood that Christ had siblings that were active in the church. Hegesippus and Julianus Africanus both talk about Christ’s relatives. Desposyni was an early term used to refer to the relatives of Christ. It’s taken from the word Despotes and was commonly used to refer to the brothers and sisters of Christ. I can show more but have to run.

PEACE
 
Some are lost without Scripture and contend that others “should be”. :o

Why do we need faith? If it’s all in black and white what’s left to have faith in? Faith is surrender. Surrender to what you do not know and more specifically, what you cannot know. I know this will irretate some, but that’s not the intention and I’m not sure why that belief bothers people who don’t believe it. I for one couldn’t care less that there are those that derive their entire faith doctrine only from what is in Scripture.

The fact remains that we simply cannot know if Christ had siblings or not by reading Scripture. I prefer to side with the Church not only because it is the guiding light of my faith, but because the Church has the most exhaustive deposit of knowledge in the world on Christian matters. We as Catholics believe our Church is an extension of Jesus Christ and His Apostles. So it is not difficult to accept that there are things we may not “know” and must have faith in the Church and its knowledge on these matters.

Sometimes it is hard to surrender to what you do not know, but for whatever reason, it cannot be proven one way or another. Hence the “non-Scriptural angle” of this thread.

There is no more “proof” in Scripture that Christ had siblings than there is that He did not.

But beyond all this it just sounds correct that no man would’ve touched Mary after having given birth to God Himself. I truly believe that her body was a “shrine” (a sacred place) that warranted no desecration (to violate the sacredness of (try not to make more out of that, please)).

I also believe that Mary would’ve had such a devotion to Christ her Savior as well as ours, to not engage in such desecration as well.

These are my thoughts and not necessarily the opinions of the Church. They don’t have to be yours and I don’t care to explain or argue them just as I don’t care to debate you about your beliefs.

I started this thread not for debate, but just to get some thoughts of people of all faiths who might just close their Bibles for a moment and dare to think on their own.

But that is never the case here.

Peace Be With You,

HC
 
I would ask you to show me non-scriptural evidence from an Early Church Father that supports the perpetual virginity of Mary. Now when I say ECF I mean someone from the late 1st century to the 2nd century. People who were close to the Apostles and would have knowledge of this. Namely Polycarp, Ignatius, Clement etc. Fact remains you will not find anything until the mid to late 4th century. The first and 2nd century church fathers understood that Christ had siblings that were active in the church. Hegesippus and Julianus Africanus both talk about Christ’s relatives. Desposyni was an early term used to refer to the relatives of Christ. It’s taken from the word Despotes and was commonly used to refer to the brothers and sisters of Christ. I can show more but have to run.

PEACE
Cochaba, according to Epiphanius (Haer. XXX. 2 and 16), was a village in Basanitide near Decapolis. It is noticeable that this region was the seat of Ebionism. There may therefore be significance in the care with which these Desposyni preserved the genealogy of Joseph, for the Ebionites believed that Christ was the real son of Joseph, and therefore Joseph’s lineage was his.

Well, I’ve taken the liberty of dispelling this rumor. Next?
 
Some are lost without Scripture and contend that others “should be”. :o

Why do we need faith? If it’s all in black and white what’s left to have faith in? Faith is surrender. Surrender to what you do not know and more specifically, what you cannot know. I know this will irretate some, but that’s not the intention and I’m not sure why that belief bothers people who don’t believe it. I for one couldn’t care less that there are those that derive their entire faith doctrine only from what is in Scripture.

The fact remains that we simply cannot know if Christ had siblings or not by reading Scripture. I prefer to side with the Church not only because it is the guiding light of my faith, but because the Church has the most exhaustive deposit of knowledge in the world on Christian matters. We as Catholics believe our Church is an extension of Jesus Christ and His Apostles. So it is not difficult to accept that there are things we may not “know” and must have faith in the Church and its knowledge on these matters.
The insistence on some non-Catholics to prove that Jesus had brothers and sisters is similar to the muslim argument that He is not God. Since Jesus or Mary did not come out and say specifically such things (ie. Jesus has no brothers, Jesus is Son of God), then they must be false. The problem is that they cannot trust the Church has been led by the Holy Spirit and has taught from the beginning such things. Also, they cannot look at the whole of scripture, but must find one or two lines for their proof, and then make logical leaps to prove it.

The belief that any man, Joseph or any other, who were imperfect and sinful, would touch she who is holy and has a unique relationship with God, is unfathomable to me.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top