B
Blue_Horizon
Guest
It is a teaching of our Church that God miraculously preserved this bodily integrity in Our Lady after (and during) her childbirth (see Paul IV, “Cum Quorundam”, 7 August, 1555).
However we also know that the infallibility of Church Teaching only extends to matters of faith and morals and not to matters of science (unless there is such a linkage between the two sets that the denial of one would always mean the denial of the other).
So the question is: is this teaching actually infallibly defined? For how can the Church teach as infallibly true that which properly belongs to the domain of science (eg the earth revolves around the sun) and so outside of the umbrella of infallibility?
Obviously the Church also teaches us things on a prudential and disciplinary basis that we must publicly assent to even if not yet Dogmatically defined (I believe such is currently the official status wrt use of artificial methods of birth control, maintaining Clerical Celibacy amongst the Secular Clergy and approved Apparitions (where assent is not actually required but recommended)).
So I am wondering if this teaching (intact hymen after birth) is really a prudential/disciplinary one and could one day eventually become treated more as pious legend than dogma (like the legend that Mary was brought up as a dedicated Virgin in the Jerusalem Temple)?
There is no doubt of course that Mary knew no man at any time in her life (the Dogma of her Perpetual Virginity). That appears to be a historical fact handed down by tradition from the beginning even if definitive echoing of this fact in Scripture is debated.
However the matching physical integrity thing is a different kettle of fish altogether.
I also note that it is down-played in the current Catechism which indirects/obfuscates much clearer physical statements found in previous Catechisms of the past (especially as one gets closer to Trent).
The only direct reference in the current CCC seems to be:
499 The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man.
Its not exactly a ringing, whole-hearted endorsement of the early Church’s later inferences that Mary must have remained physically intact as well. (This is of course explained by the same ancient theologians as being possible, despite birth, due to the fact that baby Jesus was miraculously “born” without passing down the birth canal but somehow passing through the abdominal wall).
However we also know that the infallibility of Church Teaching only extends to matters of faith and morals and not to matters of science (unless there is such a linkage between the two sets that the denial of one would always mean the denial of the other).
So the question is: is this teaching actually infallibly defined? For how can the Church teach as infallibly true that which properly belongs to the domain of science (eg the earth revolves around the sun) and so outside of the umbrella of infallibility?
Obviously the Church also teaches us things on a prudential and disciplinary basis that we must publicly assent to even if not yet Dogmatically defined (I believe such is currently the official status wrt use of artificial methods of birth control, maintaining Clerical Celibacy amongst the Secular Clergy and approved Apparitions (where assent is not actually required but recommended)).
So I am wondering if this teaching (intact hymen after birth) is really a prudential/disciplinary one and could one day eventually become treated more as pious legend than dogma (like the legend that Mary was brought up as a dedicated Virgin in the Jerusalem Temple)?
There is no doubt of course that Mary knew no man at any time in her life (the Dogma of her Perpetual Virginity). That appears to be a historical fact handed down by tradition from the beginning even if definitive echoing of this fact in Scripture is debated.
However the matching physical integrity thing is a different kettle of fish altogether.
I also note that it is down-played in the current Catechism which indirects/obfuscates much clearer physical statements found in previous Catechisms of the past (especially as one gets closer to Trent).
The only direct reference in the current CCC seems to be:
499 The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man.
Its not exactly a ringing, whole-hearted endorsement of the early Church’s later inferences that Mary must have remained physically intact as well. (This is of course explained by the same ancient theologians as being possible, despite birth, due to the fact that baby Jesus was miraculously “born” without passing down the birth canal but somehow passing through the abdominal wall).