S
Shibboleth
Guest
First off I want to ask if the Catholic Church has stated infallably that the Sin of Sodom was homosexual behavior? I do not know the answer to this question.
Second Question does “to know” mean definitively to “have intercourse with?”
I have read the Bible a few times and I have not come to the conclusion that homosexual acts were the Sin of Sodom
Sodom is mentioned many times in the Bible; and none of those times is homosexuality listed as the sin of Sodom. Deuteronomy 23:17 and I Kings 14:24 translate “temple prostitute” to “sodomite.” Even this is based on the assumption that the sins of Sodom were sexual in nature at all. “Yada” is the Hebrew word for “to know.” It is found more than 900 times in the Old Testament to mean literally “to know or be familiar with, to become acquainted.” Sodom was a tiny oasis in a vast wilderness near the Dead Sea. The only strangers (strange flesh) that they would encounter were enemy tribes wanting their valuable set-up and wanderers (dependent on their hospitality for survival- to deny it was to send them to death). For a clear explanation of the sin of Sodom see **Deuteronomy 29:22-28 and 32:32; Ezekiel 16:49-50; Jeremiah 49:18 and 50:41; Isaiah 13:19-22; Matthew 10:14-15 and Wisdom 19:13-14.**The classical orthodox understanding of this verse has nothing to do with homosexuality. If these men were homosexuals, why did Lot offer his daughters? The same with Judges 19:1-30. Even the gay-condemning understanding of this passage is not about same-sex love, it is about gang rape. Lot understood the sacredness of a guest. That is why he offered his daughters.
Second Question does “to know” mean definitively to “have intercourse with?”
I have read the Bible a few times and I have not come to the conclusion that homosexual acts were the Sin of Sodom
Sodom is mentioned many times in the Bible; and none of those times is homosexuality listed as the sin of Sodom. Deuteronomy 23:17 and I Kings 14:24 translate “temple prostitute” to “sodomite.” Even this is based on the assumption that the sins of Sodom were sexual in nature at all. “Yada” is the Hebrew word for “to know.” It is found more than 900 times in the Old Testament to mean literally “to know or be familiar with, to become acquainted.” Sodom was a tiny oasis in a vast wilderness near the Dead Sea. The only strangers (strange flesh) that they would encounter were enemy tribes wanting their valuable set-up and wanderers (dependent on their hospitality for survival- to deny it was to send them to death). For a clear explanation of the sin of Sodom see **Deuteronomy 29:22-28 and 32:32; Ezekiel 16:49-50; Jeremiah 49:18 and 50:41; Isaiah 13:19-22; Matthew 10:14-15 and Wisdom 19:13-14.**The classical orthodox understanding of this verse has nothing to do with homosexuality. If these men were homosexuals, why did Lot offer his daughters? The same with Judges 19:1-30. Even the gay-condemning understanding of this passage is not about same-sex love, it is about gang rape. Lot understood the sacredness of a guest. That is why he offered his daughters.