I
Innocent_Lamb
Guest
I was just wondering why Jesus is sometimes reffered to, and reffers to Himself, as the Son of Man. Is it because he was born of Mary?
Thanks!
IL
Thanks!
IL
HiI was just wondering why Jesus is sometimes reffered to, and reffers to Himself, as the Son of Man. Is it because he was born of Mary?
Thanks!
IL
All I could find on it. I think it has to do with Mary, and the Human Nature of Christ as the New Adam. Although someone around here probably has a better answer - I hope that helps someThe early Fathers were of the opinion that the expression was used out of humility and to show Christ’s human nature, and this is very probable considering the early rise of Docetism. This is also the opinion of Cornelius a Lapide. Others, such as Knabenbauer, think that He adopted a title which would not give umbrage to His enemies, and which, as time went on, was capable of being applied so as to cover His Messianic claims – to include everything that had been foretold of the representative man, the second Adam, the suffering servant of Jehovah, the Messianic king.
Grateful I could help.Thank you both, John and Arron I! Your answers were very helpfull, and I especially appreciate the link to New Advent.
If anyone else has any other information on the topic I would love to hear it!
Thank you again!
IL