B
Birdmanman
Guest
The sacrament of Penance (Confession) is necessary for the forgiveness of sins (or else, as far as I know, baptism (if you were previously unbaptized) or last rites or a combination of perfect contrition and the actual intention to confess).
However, in the story of the woman caught in adultery (Jn 8), Jesus forgave her sins without the Gospel mentioning her asking for forgiveness or explicitly confessing her sin to Christ.
For the purpose of this thread, please exclude theories that the woman is actually Mary Magdalene or the woman who anointed Christ’s feet.
However, in the story of the woman caught in adultery (Jn 8), Jesus forgave her sins without the Gospel mentioning her asking for forgiveness or explicitly confessing her sin to Christ.
- Is it just to forgive someone without them asking for forgiveness, or even having any contrition whatsoever?
- Could this Gospel reading be used to support an argument that sacramental confession is unnecessary for the forgiveness of sins? (of course, such an interpretation would be false).
- What arguments would you have against an anti-confession reading of this passage?
For the purpose of this thread, please exclude theories that the woman is actually Mary Magdalene or the woman who anointed Christ’s feet.