D
DailyBread
Guest
I asked a question in the regular forums that I think has confused people and one suggested I ask it here.
I am leading a theology of the body discussion group on West’s book, “Good News About Sex and Marriage,” and a question that came to my mind I am not sure of the answer.
The question is about whether it is morally licit for a couple to seek climax for the wife after male climax even if she has achieved it before or during his. I know it says it is morally licit if the wife has not been able to achieve it by the time the husband has, the husband to help his wife, but does it become an act of masturbation if she has already achieved it? Hope this question is alright to post here and thanks for the help!
I am leading a theology of the body discussion group on West’s book, “Good News About Sex and Marriage,” and a question that came to my mind I am not sure of the answer.
The question is about whether it is morally licit for a couple to seek climax for the wife after male climax even if she has achieved it before or during his. I know it says it is morally licit if the wife has not been able to achieve it by the time the husband has, the husband to help his wife, but does it become an act of masturbation if she has already achieved it? Hope this question is alright to post here and thanks for the help!