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inkaneer
Guest
Thanks to Alexander the Great Greek was the universal language. Commerce in the Mediterranean was done in Greek. Because of this The Hebrew scriptures were translated into Greek and became Known as the Septuagint. This occurred in about 200-250 BC depending on what source one uses. But you are wrong in stating that books were added to the Septuagint, The Hebrew scriptures contained the same books as did the Septuagint until about 90 AD when the Hebrew scriptures dropped seven books. But through out the life of Jesus the two were identical.Do they disagree on the use of the Tanakh? Oh, I see. You’re referring to the first-century Greek-speaking Jews who tended to use the Septuagint. They probably used the Septuagint because it’s in Greek and that’s the language they spoke. What I don’t think is that it indicates a disagreement among Jews as to whether or not they should add some books to the ones they knew were inspired by God…
Look pal plagiarizing is a crime. If you are going to quote Wikipedia then do so properly. Also do it correctly and leave nothing out. For instance Wikipedia says that the reason Jews quit usiing the septuagint was because it was being used by a rival religion. Who was that rival religion? CHRISTIANITY, that’s who. By the way the hebrew scriptures complete with 46 books is still used today by is still in use among some Jews to this day such as the Ethiopian Jews.Of course, the use of the Septuagint among Jews declined drastically when most Jews in the Greek-speaking eastern Roman Empire were “somehow” displaced and wound up in the Aramaic-speaking Persian Empire. This supports the assertion that the Greek-speaking Jews who used the Septuagint did so out of necessity and perhaps as an effort to contribute something to Hellenistic culture in its own language, not because there was a significant plurality of opinion among Jews as to which books of the Bible actually had divine origins.
The Apostles were to convert the Jews before they were to go out to the world. That point was reached in Acts when Peter had his vision. So the Jews who remained were not only the ones who rejected the Gospel but they were the ones who persecuted the christians. So why would any christian abide by what they said and not what the christian church said?Because they’re God’s chosen people (still are, by the way) and it was to them that the OT was given. How is your preceding comment anything other than an example of the genetic fallacy?.
THIS IS FALSE. There is not one reputable bible scholar be they Catholic or Protestant who maintains this lie. All of them state that the originally the Hebrew scriptures contained the same number of books as the Septuagint. It was the Hebrew scriptures that were changed not the Septuagint. Oddly enough the Hebrew scriptures were changed to prevent the “new writings” from being included. And what were these “new writings”? Matthew, Mark, Luke and John among others. The Jews tried to block the New Testament from being added.It is true that the Septuagint, over the course of several hundred years, saw the gradual addition of several books to it. Now a few questions for you…
There is no standard as to how a book is regarded. Look at the NT book of Philemon. Is that regarded the same as other epistles of Paul? Yet you say it is inspired, don’t you? WHY? As for Anagignoskomena take that up with the Orthodox. We use the deuterocanonical. As for the Tanahk the deuteros were part of the Tanakh until they were removed by anti christian Jews.Were these books regarded in just the same way as all the others? Was any differentiation made between the ones that became your deuterocanonicals and the ones that Jews have always known were God-inspired? You may want to look into the word Anagignoskomena as you answer these questions. It fits the classic idea that these books not found in the Hebrew Tanakh are to be read as instruction, devotion, and example, but not to establish doctrine. This is a distinction practiced by some Roman Catholic authorities before the Council of Trent, the Anglican Church, and at least part of the Orthodox church.
No one added anything to the Septuagint. You keep repeating this lie. Also Augustine did not preside over the councils at Carthage. Augustine was the bishop of Hippo not Carthage.Who added these books to the Septuagint? Can you cite names and general time periods? How would you assess the process of their addition? Do you have any reason to believe the Holy Spirit was guiding these additions? And isn’t that a moot point if they weren’t actually regarded as definitively God-inspired along with all the others?
No one really fought over it, but it wasn’t universally agreed upon. Some Roman Catholic leaders were among those who supported using the anagignoskomena as the Jews used it. Certain orthodox leaders, as well, but more on the Roman side.
Didn’t most Christians (ie., Augustine) wrongly believe the Septuagint was a divinely inspired translation and (a false story) that 70 translators worked independently in producing 70 identical translations? As Augustine was the one presiding over the Councils of Carthage, shouldn’t his erroneous beliefs about the Septuagint cause you to question whether or not he and his colleagues (mostly identical to him in their erroneous beliefs about the Septuagint) made a good decision in saying the anagignoskomena is just the same as every other part of the Septuagint?