Thomas vs. Augustine

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picasso_13

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Could someone explain the differences between the Thomist and Augustinian view of Predestination? Thanks! šŸ™‚
 
When I read the thread title, I had this ā€œFreddie vs. Jasonā€ image pop in my head of two guys with crucifixes about ready to pummel each other.
 
St. Augustine’s work on predestination was apologetic - i.e., he was defending the orthodox position against tweo heresies: Pelagianism and Semi-Pelagianism. These, basically, maintained that a person’s salvation is completely up to that individual - that how that individual chooses to live determines his salvation or damnation. In other words, that God provides the means to heaven (or hell) but which one a person gets is completely up to that person. In combatting this, St. Augustine emphasized God’s complete sovereignty. According to Augustine (as mentioned in the New Catholic Encyclopedia (N.C.E.)]), ā€œpredestinationā€ (or ā€œforeknowledgeā€) in God has to do with God’s sovereign will in the matter of salvation. So…apart from God, no one can be saved. ā€œAccording to St. Augustine, the decrees of the divine will are infallible regarding predestination … because He is omnipotent and accomplishes what He willsā€ (N.C.E.). Taken aprt from the rest of his works, Augustine’s treatment of predestination can seem to mean that salvation or damnation are ā€˜exclusively’ God’s prerogative aprt from our own free response. This isn’t what he meant - else all of his own sermons were quite pointless!

St. Thomas said, agreeing with Augustine on this point, that God’s choice / will is His own, caused in no way by any creature. The result of our choices in response to Grace from God is 1] a consequence of our free will; and 2] 'fore’known (predestined) by God. But it isn’t ā€˜ordered’ (in the sense of ā€˜commanded’) by God. Thomas built upon what Augustine said, but - not being embroiled in an ongoing defense against a popular heresy on the issue, as Augustine was - took the study of the matter deeper and further.

The Catholic Church maintains - dogmatically - the following:
  • God ā€˜predestines’ NO ONE to evil;
  • He wills that everyone be saved;
  • Christ died for everyone - not only for those whom he foreknows as ā€˜saved’;
  • Grace to be saved is truly sufficient for salvation AND a gratuitous (freely given) gift of God;
  • The grace to be saved is offered to sinners;
  • Those who are damned are deprived of salvific grace by their own refusal of it, and this refusal IS NOT caused by God, but He allows it.
 
Thanks for the info. So there really isn’t much difference between the two camps? I’m still learning, but think I lean towards a Thomist theology.
 
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