C
Catholic_Dude
Guest
Keep in mind I was paraphrasing, but I listened to that part of the show again here:Am I the crazy person in this room or does Slick’s comment have no coherent meaning whatsoever?
carmpodcasting.blogspot.com/2007/10/matt-slick-teaching-on-reformation-and.html
It starts at about time 45:43 and this is virtually word for word:
“If it [acts 2:38] is a doctrinal statement of what is required to be saved and faith is not included in this doctrinal statement, then it cannot be comprehensively stated as being a doctrinal statement of what is required to be save. I set you up, and you fell right into it.”
The LDS guy tried something similar to that.<< Am I the crazy person in this room or does Slick’s comment have no coherent meaning whatsoever? >>
Not crazy, even I who am not a phone personwould reply to Slick immediately: faith may not be mentioned, but repentance is – “repent, and be baptized” – and repentance implies and requires faith. You don’t repent if you don’t believe.
But you’re right, his objection doesn’t make much sense. Normally folks try to argue the “for” (Greek eis) means not “in order to” but “because of” or “because you already have…” For example:
Be baptized in order to receive remission of sins
vs.
Be baptized because of (you have) remission of sins
Or as Hank Hanegraaff explains this, “you take an aspirin for a headache” means you take an aspirin “because you have” a headache.
The problem is that Acts 2:38 isn’t the only verse in the Bible which deals with salvation. While many claim to “speak where the scriptures speak and remain silent where the scriptures are silent,” they practically ignore most of the New Testament teaching on salvation. The only verses that such false teachers quote and reference are the ones they feel they can use to promote their “water gospel.” The fact is that most of what the New Testament says about salvation doesn’t include baptism at all! (John 5:24, John 11:25-26, John 14:6, Romans 4:5, Romans 10:9-13, Eph. 2:8-9, etc.), and the few places that do mention water baptism do not include it as part of one’s salvation.They get this from other uses of “for” such as Matthew 12:41 “…because they repented at (eis) the preaching of Jonas…” See Acts 2:38 – Satan’s Favorite Bible Versewhich argues this.
LOL! How do you like “most of what the NT says”?
What happened to Scripture being so clear the average man can understand it? What about the Nicene Creed “I acknowledge one Baptism for the forgiveness of sins”?Needless to say, none of the Fathers saw the need to argue away baptismal regeneration with such grammatical gymnastics.