S
sw85
Guest
Some odd questions have occurred to me recently; sorry in advance if these have been answered previously.
God exists outside of time; is it reasonable to suppose then, that Heaven and Hell also exist outside of time? C. S. Lewis suggested in “The Great Divorce” that this is in fact the case, so that he was arriving in Heaven at the same “time” as people who had died long before him and even those who had died long after.
If this is the case, is it reasonable to say that there was never a “time” when Heaven was not already full of all the souls that will ever come to occupy it, and likewise of Hell?
And if this is the case, is it reasonable to suppose that Hell was already full of souls when Jesus harrowed it (or will harrow it?) – and this is perhaps the method by which He may save (may have saved?) all those who died without baptism, in invincible ignorance, etc.?
Hopefully I’ve conveyed this clearly enough. I understand and accept the idea that God is outside of time, I’m just trying to wrap my mind around the logical implications of it all.
God exists outside of time; is it reasonable to suppose then, that Heaven and Hell also exist outside of time? C. S. Lewis suggested in “The Great Divorce” that this is in fact the case, so that he was arriving in Heaven at the same “time” as people who had died long before him and even those who had died long after.
If this is the case, is it reasonable to say that there was never a “time” when Heaven was not already full of all the souls that will ever come to occupy it, and likewise of Hell?
And if this is the case, is it reasonable to suppose that Hell was already full of souls when Jesus harrowed it (or will harrow it?) – and this is perhaps the method by which He may save (may have saved?) all those who died without baptism, in invincible ignorance, etc.?
Hopefully I’ve conveyed this clearly enough. I understand and accept the idea that God is outside of time, I’m just trying to wrap my mind around the logical implications of it all.