M
MarcoPG
Guest
Hello,
I was reading some statements of Jesus and wondering how he could say
John 3:13
“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
It may not, but it coud also be a direct reference to His ascension, before it happened.
Also, there are this passages:
John 17
And** I am no longer in the world**, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one. 12 While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me.
So, if He speaks of Himslef as already ascended, can we begin to search in the direction of events in the Gospel of John being understood both in time and in eternity, more than clearly pointing out Jesus’ devinity?
Thank you
I was reading some statements of Jesus and wondering how he could say
John 3:13
“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
It may not, but it coud also be a direct reference to His ascension, before it happened.
Also, there are this passages:
John 17
And** I am no longer in the world**, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one. 12 While I was with them, I kept them in your name, which you have given me.
So, if He speaks of Himslef as already ascended, can we begin to search in the direction of events in the Gospel of John being understood both in time and in eternity, more than clearly pointing out Jesus’ devinity?
Thank you