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NguyenKimPhat
Guest
Dear CAF,
Titus 3:1-7, “Remind them to be submissive to rulers and authorities, to be obedient, to be ready for any honest work, to speak evil of no one, to avoid quarreling, to be gentle, and to show perfect courtesy toward all men. For we ourselves were once foolish, disobedient, led astray, slaves to various passions and pleasures, passing our days in malice and envy, hated by men and hating one another; but when the goodness and loving kindness of God our Savior appeared, he saved us, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; which he poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, so that we might be justified by his grace and become heirs in hope of eternal life.”
Will someone please help me? The most common Catholic response to Eph 2:8-9 is, “Eph 2:8-9 only refers to works under the old Mosaic Law.” However, Titus 3:5 EXPLICITLY says, “not by works of righteousness.”
How do I respond to this?
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I am so thankful for all the help here at Catholic Answers Forum, CAF has truly helped me grow in my Catholic faith. I was speaking to a Fundamentalist Baptist about how Ephesians 2:8-9 was NOT referring to good works of Christian love and obedience; instead, I explained to her that Ephesians 2:8-9 was referring to **works of the old Mosaic law.** However, she answered me with this argument:
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1) So First, the Findamentalist Baptist used Titus 3:5 to explain that even works of righteousness did not have any role in our justification. The Fundamentalist Baptist said that I was wrong when I said that Eph 2:8-9 was only referring to works of the old Mosaic Law.
How do I respond to this?