Tanais:
It is obvious to me that there is a great misunderstanding of the differences between the Roman and Eastern concepts of original sin. Could you please explain to us what are the differences and why you hold to such views as opposed to our Augustinian one?
Glory to Jesus Christ!
I myself don’t want to get too deep into this, I was told in no uncertain terms that there was no difference, yet here we are covering the same ground. But your question is sincere and I hope that some charitable individuals will address it this one last time and explain what the supposed differences are.
But the second part of the question is much easier to clearly address. You ask
“why you hold to such views as opposed to our Augustinian one?”:
Augustine of Hippo (354-430 AD)
Augustine was a convert to Christianity 300 years after Christ.
He did not read Greek, although he was a prolific author in Latin.
His understanding of Original Sin was unknown to earlier Christians, it was later the predominant opinion of the West.
The Eastern understanding by this reckoning preceeds the Western by 300 years, therefore the explanation for the difference will have to come from somewhere else. As far as Eastern Christians are concerned there is nothing to explain.
I am not trying to be rude here, although my writing style can sometimes make it seem that way. In all sincerity I would like to know why Augustine taught something new, if indeed he did teach something different from the Greek East.
I hope and pray that this will not be another flame war.