Trent on sufficiency

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Fatima-Crusader

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I had a protstant bring this up in a debatw
nearly every theologian from the Council of Trent to Vatican I (a span of about 300 years) understood the teaching of Trent to be a denial of both the material and formal sufficiency of Scripture” (Holy Scripture, Vol 1, p.183)[David King]
Does anybody own the book so I can see the sources?
 
Since he’s making the case, shouldn’t he provide the sources?
 
Scripture alone is not formally sufficient for a Catholic. The deposit is comprised of Sacred Tradition and Sacred Scripture. Not everything has been formalized in scripture that is necessary for salvation. That is why Christ instituted the Catholic Church as the Holy Way where fools would not err therein. Tradition came first, and Scripture is a subset of Tradition put to writing. Material sufficiency is supported by some Church Fathers and I think it is true, but I think it depends on interpretation of scripture to make the connection to every doctrine and dogma.
 
Reading between the lines I think what they’re really saying is that they disagree with the Church’s position on certain passages, as they interpret them differently. Nothing more than that-and they often disagree with each other over the meaning of Scripture. In this case they’re probably most concerned with session 6 on Justification. Otherwise Trent only has such things as this to say when addressing the topic of Scripture directly:

"Following, then, the examples of the orthodox Fathers, it receives and venerates with a feeling of piety and reverence all the books both of the Old and New Testaments, since one God is the author of both; also the traditions, whether they relate to faith or to morals, as having been dictated either orally by Christ or by the Holy Ghost, and preserved in the Catholic Church in unbroken succession."

"Furthermore, to check unbridled spirits, it decrees that no one relying on his own judgment shall, in matters of faith and morals pertaining to the edification of Christian doctrine, distorting the Holy Scriptures in accordance with his own conceptions,[5] presume to interpret them contrary to that sense which holy mother Church, to whom it belongs to judge of their true sense and interpretation,[6] has held and holds, or even contrary to the unanimous teaching of the Fathers, even though such interpretations should never at any time be published."
 
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