Trinity = Eternally Simultaneous Modalism?

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I’d like your thoughts on this.

From all the research I’ve been doing on the Trinity, I’ve come down to two conclusions.

The Trinity is actually a third type of modalism hiding under the word “Trinity”
It’s really Tritheism hiding under the disguise of Monotheism (But this one is highly unlikely)

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The Modalist model of God is that you have either Sequential Modalism or Simultaneous Modalism.

However if we want to be consistent on our definition of modalism I’d like to offer up a third type of Modalism.

Eternally Simultaneous Modalism or what I believe is the Trinity.

The word “essence” means the intrinsic nature or indispensable quality of something, especially something abstract, that determines its character.

One essence;

The word “eternally” a way that continues or lasts forever; permanently.

Eternally;

The word “simultaneous” means occurring, operating, or done at the same time.

In three simultaneous;

The word “mode” means a way or manner in which something occurs or is experienced, expressed, or done.

Modes;

The word “subsistence” means something that has a real existence

of subsistences;

One God in three eternally simultaneous modes of subsistences.

The original modalistic model is that God has one essence and his subsistence changes depending on the circumstances, this is sequential modalism, or that God is simultaneously as another subsistence, this is simultaneous modalism.

The Trinity however makes the claim that God is eternally and simultaneously in the modes of three subsistences.

Now we know that most Trinitarians might say the Father speaks to the Son and the Son to the Spirit etc etc, however from what I’ve studied no true Trinitarian makes the claim God is three distinct conciousness.

How then is the Trinity not another form of modalism exactly?

The thing I’d like to say is this.

How is it that if God does not have three centers of conciousness that the Father not suffer that which the Son suffers?

Is this due to the humanity of the Son experiencing it?

If not then how would this be any different than Patripassianism?

Is it because the mode of the Father is not the mode of the Son?

How would then say a simultaneous modalist be in danger of Patripassianism?

I’ve heard Thomas Aquinas’ description and explanation of the Trinity and I quite like it, however I find it problematic as it does not define Tritheism but defines an eternal and simultaneous modalistic model of God.

How would you guys avoid this problem if it is one at all?

Also, I personally do not believe in Modalism and think it’s in massive error, however I am also having issue with the Trinitarian model as well. Unitarians are dead wrong and Oneness are sometimes Modalist but not always, it usually depends on how they explain Christ’s divinity, they can either be adoptionist or an entirely different view that I can’t really label.
 
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The word “eternally” a way that continues or lasts forever; permanently.
We don’t longer understand “eternally” like that but instead “outside time”.

And either one thing is modalism or it isn’t. Christological heresies are very specific, when you change something it ceases to be that heresy and it may very well be the orthodox belief.
 
The Trinity is actually a third type of modalism hiding under the word “Trinity”
It’s really Tritheism hiding under the disguise of Monotheism (But this one is highly unlikely)
The Trinity is not any way, shape, or form tritheism. It is monotheism, for there is one divine nature, not three, therefore one being and essence, not three beings. Therefore, not tritheism which is three beings. And it is not in anyway modalism, for God is three Persons that are not one person but three. Person and modes are different. Any form of modalism would be that God is one person, but this is not true Scripturally and Traditionally, for God is clearly three separate Persons. Therefore, God is not modalist, for God is three Persons not one person in three different modes.
Now we know that most Trinitarians might say the Father speaks to the Son and the Son to the Spirit etc etc, however from what I’ve studied no true Trinitarian makes the claim God is three distinct conciousness.
Aquinas says on the definition of person:
"Although the universal and particular exist in every genus, nevertheless, in a certain special way, the individual belongs to the genus of substance. For substance is individualized by itself; whereas the accidents are individualized by the subject, which is the substance; since this particular whiteness is called “this,” because it exists in this particular subject. And so it is reasonable that the individuals of the genus substance should have a special name of their own; for they are called “hypostases,” or first substances.
 
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Further still, in a more special and perfect way, the particular and the individual are found in the rational substances which have dominion over their own actions; and which are not only made to act, like others; but which can act of themselves; for actions belong to singulars. Therefore also the individuals of the rational nature have a special name even among other substances; and this name is "person."

Thus the term “individual substance” is placed in the definition of person, as signifying the singular in the genus of substance; and the term “rational nature” is added, as signifying the singular in rational substances."

So, consciousness is altogether different than Person, for Person would be referring to an individual substance of a rational nature.
Is this due to the humanity of the Son experiencing it?
Yes, only the Son in His human nature suffered, as Aquinas says:

" As stated above (2, 1,2,3,6), the union of the human nature with the Divine was effected in the Person, in the hypostasis, in the suppositum, yet observing the distinction of natures; so that it is the same Person and hypostasis of the Divine and human natures, while each nature retains that which is proper to it. And therefore, as stated above (III:16:4), the Passion is to be attributed to the suppositum of the Divine Nature, not because of the Divine Nature, which is impassible, but by reason of the human nature. Hence, in a Synodal Epistle of Cyril [Act. Conc. Ephes., P. i, cap. 26] we read: “If any man does not confess that the Word of God suffered in the flesh and was crucified in the flesh, let him be anathema.” Therefore Christ’s Passion belongs to the “suppositum” of the Divine Nature by reason of the passible nature assumed, but not on account of the impassible Divine Nature."
 
however I find it problematic as it does not define Tritheism but defines an eternal and simultaneous modalistic model of God.
This doesn’t make sense. St. Thomas Aquinas is not arguing for tritheism, as stated above, for the Trinity is not tritheist. And as shown above, eternal and simultaneous modalism is not how we would define God. For again, any from of modalism requires one person, but the Divine Being is three Persons.
How would you guys avoid this problem if it is one at all?
I do not think you defined a problem, other than Aquinas not defining tritheims which he was not attempting to do. What you did do was state what you think the Trinity “really” is but in the end failed to address one particularly important aspect, that of the Person-hood of the three Persons.

Again, the Trinity is: in the One Being of God, there are three separate co-equal and co-eternal Persons, namely, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. These three are not Each Other but three separate Persons.

God Bless
 
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