Sure. It is not a question of authority having ceased. There’s no question that the bishop of Rome, at the time of the Reformation, had authority as a bishop. However, Lutherans hold that what was being taught at the time was not in line with what the church had previously held to in many areas of doctrine. Therefore, he had no authority to enforce it upon the churches.
Yet, as we know, most of his objections were either already accepted by Rome, or were only being taught locally, but not by the Holy See itself. Like the subject of indulgences.
DISCLAIMER: Catholic Answers has turned over the archive to Catholic-Questions.org and no longer owns, manages, or moderates the forums. For additional apologetics resources please visit www.catholic.com.
