S
SyroMalankara
Guest
I have a doctrinal and canon law question:
I realize the Catholic Church says the Pope is the final authority even over the Ecumenical Councils. The Orthodox say the opposite.
Now my questions: Why did VCI have to ratify that the Pope has infallible and ordinary universal authority, if the Pope is over the Council? Why did the Pope not make an ex cathedra pronouncement, instead of VCI ratifying this?
Why was there debate if this authority was always recognized?
How does one answer the Orthodox position that:
if the Pope is over the Council, then the Council will simply be the Pope’s own committee, just agreeing to his pronouncements, and if the Council disagrees he can just declare that decision null and void?
I realize the Catholic Church says the Pope is the final authority even over the Ecumenical Councils. The Orthodox say the opposite.
Now my questions: Why did VCI have to ratify that the Pope has infallible and ordinary universal authority, if the Pope is over the Council? Why did the Pope not make an ex cathedra pronouncement, instead of VCI ratifying this?
Why was there debate if this authority was always recognized?
How does one answer the Orthodox position that:
if the Pope is over the Council, then the Council will simply be the Pope’s own committee, just agreeing to his pronouncements, and if the Council disagrees he can just declare that decision null and void?