T
TMC
Guest
Its not that form is not important, its that the correct form revolves around what the priest and penitent intend to do, not over the exact words chosen.I agree with you to a certain extent. I don’t think the recipient’s (mis)understanding of what the priest says can invalidate a sacrament, only his or her true contrition for their sins (since that is the matter of the sacrament and up to the penitent). However, stumbling over some words accidentally is entirely different than completely changing the words. I think we can agree that a priest couldn’t say “I don’t absolve you of any of your sins” but then afterwards say “Well, I meant to absolve you as the church intends, so the sacrament was valid.” That wouldn’t be true. Words have specific meanings, and we don’t get to make up their definitions on the fly. "if the priest were to say “I ablove thee” because he got tongue tied, it probably is still valid, since the intent to recite the proper form would be evident.
However, I think the whole thing is so easily resolved - say the words like you were instructed to Father! And if you mess up, or “slip”, start over and do it right. I mean, it takes a significant suspension of disbelief to accept that a priest with faculties for confession doesn’t know the correct form of the sacrament. Who can’t memorize “I absolve thee”? Certainly it is something the faithful should presume a priest of Christ’s Church is capable of memorizing.
That’s why I think that the presumption leans more towards invalid if the form is changed, since if the priest intends to do as the Church does, should he not also do it in the manner the Church provides? To use his own words implies a rebellion against Church authority, and if he doesn’t care about the little, easy things, what about the big, hard things?
What is required is for the penitent to confess in sincere good faith and for the priest to absolve the penitent with the same sincerity. The reason why the “wrong words” may bring validity into question is that it makes it hard to tell if the priest and penitent are doing their parts in good faith. If the priests says, “OK whatever, NEXT!” then I think there is good reason to question whether he was meaning to absolve the pentitent in good faith. But if the priest says something that communicates that he is doing what the Sacrament is intended to do, then the Sacrament is valid, even if illicit.
People are saying that changing even one word invalidates this (or any) Sacrament. Is there any authority for that position? I have never seen any teaching of the Church that says this. The Canon doesn’t say that, and neither does the Catechism. The apologists that I have read (like Akin) all say that the precise choice of words effects licitness, but not validity.