Validity of sacramentals

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We frequently speak of the validity of sacraments being dependent on form, matter, and intent. Is the same true of sacramentals? It seems reasonable, but I’ve never heard validity of sacramentals discussed.
 
Most sacramentals are just objects (rosaries, scapulars, etc.) that remind us of holy truths. There is nothing about them that needs to be “valid.”

I think I have heard that blessings (e.g., when a priest or deacon blesses an object) are also considered sacramentals. In that sense, I suppose the priest or deacon would have to have the intent to impart a blessing.

I’m not sure whether this is what you meant, but I hope it helps.
 
Most sacramentals are just objects (rosaries, scapulars, etc.) that remind us of holy truths. There is nothing about them that needs to be “valid.”
Let’s consider scapulars. What if, instead of say brown or green, the scapular is fluorescent orange? Or if instead of the prescribed prayer for the scapular, some vague platitude is uttered?

What if instead of using sodium chloride when blessing holy water, potassium carbonate is used instead?
 
There are forms for each of the sacramentals. Who determines them depends on their origin. The Carmelites, for example, determine the forms of their scapulars, etc.

Traditionally the brown scapular is made of wool, and of a certain size, but I have heard some people say that wool is no longer required and other fabrics can be used. I have not however checked with anyone in authority to verify this, and tradition is always best in any case.

Blessings are real spiritual benefits, not only reminders. Promises associated with sacramentals are real promises.
 
I think I have heard that blessings (e.g., when a priest or deacon blesses an object) are also considered sacramentals. In that sense, I suppose the priest or deacon would have to have the intent to impart a blessing.

I’m not sure whether this is what you meant, but I hope it helps.
It also would require that the blessing be within the scope of those allowed by his particular church; there are 23 churches in the Catholic Church, after all, each with different rules.

Byzantine Rite deacons, for example, are not permitted to do blessings except in certain very rare circumstances. (Only when they are the celebrant for Baptisms, weddings, and certain paraliturgical services. And them being the celebrant is extraordinary in and of itself.)

Roman Deacons are permitted a wide range of blessings outside the liturgies. My dad (a Roman Rite Deacon) has blessed my last two apartments, and my trailer home prior to them, using the approved formulae.

Some Eastern Catholic churches do grant the faculty for blessing to deacons. Others do not.
 
Some Eastern Catholic churches do grant the faculty for blessing to deacons. Others do not.
In a case where a blessing was given beyond the scope of faculties, could we say that such a blessing was invalid, or simply illicit?
 
In a case where a blessing was given beyond the scope of faculties, could we say that such a blessing was invalid, or simply illicit?
I honestly don’t know… but I strongly suspect it would depend on what blessing, why done, and if it would ever be permitted to be done by that deacon.
 
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