S
SerbCath
Guest
Hello-
I am relatively new here. I am in the process of converting (to the Byzantine Church).
In order to avoid duplication, here was my first post telling my “story”
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=868073
I have question related to scripture. Some years ago, I completed a Masters Degree from a protestant seminary, as I was planning to be clergy. During my time in that training, (and to be honest the 28 years leading up to it) I was exposed to what is pretty standard Reform hermeneutics and the epistemological constructs of infallable, verbal, plenary inspiration in the original texts. The best way to explain how that works is something like this:
The original texts (Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek) are perfect. There is nothing that God left out or put in them that does not belong. This is true in the verbal sense–meaning every single word and piece of punctuation. It is true in the plenary sense–meaning that no scripture ever contradicts itself.
The implications of this are particularly important when approaching the text in a translated language. In general, if you find an apparent contradiction, the most likely culprits are 1. you or 2. the translation.
So–I am wondering a few things. It seems that the official Catholic translations are derived from the septuigint and the vulgate. Based on my understanding of translation rules, this is violation primary importance. To translate from one language and then to another and then to English causes a great deal of the original intent to be lost.
Am I misreading this? Are there Catholic translations that go directly from Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek—>English? What is the Catholic approach to the original texts?
Thanks.
I am relatively new here. I am in the process of converting (to the Byzantine Church).
In order to avoid duplication, here was my first post telling my “story”
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=868073
I have question related to scripture. Some years ago, I completed a Masters Degree from a protestant seminary, as I was planning to be clergy. During my time in that training, (and to be honest the 28 years leading up to it) I was exposed to what is pretty standard Reform hermeneutics and the epistemological constructs of infallable, verbal, plenary inspiration in the original texts. The best way to explain how that works is something like this:
The original texts (Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek) are perfect. There is nothing that God left out or put in them that does not belong. This is true in the verbal sense–meaning every single word and piece of punctuation. It is true in the plenary sense–meaning that no scripture ever contradicts itself.
The implications of this are particularly important when approaching the text in a translated language. In general, if you find an apparent contradiction, the most likely culprits are 1. you or 2. the translation.
So–I am wondering a few things. It seems that the official Catholic translations are derived from the septuigint and the vulgate. Based on my understanding of translation rules, this is violation primary importance. To translate from one language and then to another and then to English causes a great deal of the original intent to be lost.
Am I misreading this? Are there Catholic translations that go directly from Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek—>English? What is the Catholic approach to the original texts?
Thanks.