I’ve read on this website that Joseph, husband of Mary may have been a widower with children or he could have been a virgin. If he was a widower with children, then Mk:3 and other verses could be easily explained without having to go into ancient Greek or Aramaic distinguishing Jesus’ brothers and sisters as close relatives. I think we as Catholics are free to believe either: widower or virgin. Of course, Mary is ever virgin, but does anyone know any decisive work about Joseph?
The article in the link addresses the Protoevangelium which in the Eastern Church has much regard: the main source of this apocryphal tale of St. Joseph being a wizened old octogenarian (with children yet) There are so many difficulties with this legend, yet it did serve a purpose in its day. It was to emphasise the fact that Joseph never did (or was able) to violate his spouse.
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