Was Mary completely without sin?

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She did NOT call Jesus her savior, as Jesus had not yet been born when she visited her cousin Elizabeth. She referred to “God her savior” as any pious Jew would do. And Jesus was not a “Christian” either.
I am pretty sure that Jesus was Christ, and if his teaching are what Christianity is about then for me, Jesus was a Christian, he is the Saviour that offered himself and taught us how to be saved while following only the teachings and laws of the Father.
Christ existed from the beginning of time. Both Judaism and Christianity is about the Savior. Both religions are based on the same thing that existed outside of time. And from how I understand it is Judaism is the chapter where they follow the God that is to be revealed and would be known as you mature in a spiritual walk with God. Christianity is the continuation of Judaism, and since you cannot separate the son from the father, you cannot call seperate out God’s kingdom, Judaism and Christianity.

See The Eucharist as The Lamb’s Supper.
 
Does the Catholic church teach that Mary was completely without sin through all her life? It seems like some passages of the scripture contradict this point.

“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8)

When visiting Elizabeth, Mary proclaims:

“and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior” (Luke 1:48)

If Mary is completely free from sin, why would she call Jesus her Savior?
John wasn’t talking about Mary. They can’t keep putting “except Mary” everytime they write something. Remember these letters are targeted to a specific audience.

Mary too needs to be saved because she is born into an imperfect world. Unless you are suggesting that infants who die in complete innocence do not need saving for they too have not sinned. Mary still needs to get from this imperfect world with her mortal body to the perfect world with her glorified body which was granted to her by her Son at her dormition.
 
Does the Catholic church teach that Mary was completely without sin through all her life? It seems like some passages of the scripture contradict this point.

“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8)

When visiting Elizabeth, Mary proclaims:

“and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior” (Luke 1:48)

If Mary is completely free from sin, why would she call Jesus her Savior?
Original sin comes from conception so, Mary was pre-redeemed as a necessary requirement to be the Mother of God. Hence the Immaculate Conception which refers to Mary.

Whether pre-redeemed or redeemed afterwards…God is her Savior.

Not only would she have to be conceived without sin but, to be the Mother of God she would have to be full of grace - Gratia Plena - meaning: having the fulness of grace and therefore having the grace to always do God’s will without falter and without waiver.

Mary was also assumed into heaven body and soul. This because she did not recieve the penalty from sin except a natural death like her son, Jesus both not as a result of sin but of their natural bodily state.

You really have to know about the Blessed Virgin Mother in order to understand these mysteries. Pray the Rosary everyday and slowly but surely you will understand…give it time.

Love, mangy dog
 
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