In reading the post and its link which began this thread along with the additional post of this thread a couple of things struck me.
First about the original post. When reading the article link to the Thread I came to the conclusion that once again “Sole Scripture” can be a dangerous thing especially when phrases and verses are taken out of context and applied as a foundation of a particular agenda, in this case Homosexuality.
There are three key terms used by Paul that seems to form the basis of the articles argument. The greek terms are: “Poneia”, often translated as “Fornication” (that is illicit sexual intercourse), “Malakos” translated as “Effeminate” and “Arsenokoites” translated as “Homosexual or one who goe to bed with males”.
In 1 Cor 6: 12 - 20, Paul uses all three terms in his condemnation of immoral sexual practices. However, as it seems to me, the author of the article has limited his scope of Paul’s usage of these terms to the limites of the specific verses, where taken alone could reasonably be argued that he was condemning the practice of sexual behavior either with prostitutes or with young boys (here being the subject of the thread). When Paul uses the word Poneia, either as a noun or in its verbal form, in 1 Cor 6 it is amoung his condemnation of sexual intercourse with prostitutes (either for money or as an act of pagan cultural religious prostitution). However, this is an example of taking a word (or sentence) out of context because he uses the same words to condemn and excommunicate the man living with his step mother.
I have read other articles where the position held is that when Paul condems “Arsenokites” this reflect only the condemnation of homosexual activity with male prostitutes - again those who espose this opinion use selected sentences and point out that rather than isolating his condemnation Paul includes this group in the list that seems to condemn prostitution. So there point is Paul was condemning prostitution no homosexual activity.
There third term I am focusing on is the term “Malakos or Malakai” that is “Effeminate”. This is the term used by Paul which the NAB translates as “Boy Prostitutes” However, I want to add one point that I think is important before I continue. Jennifer123 refered to the the NAB’s footnote on this matter which I think is misleading or that see does not understand the footnote or just did not read the footnote correctly. The footnote in the NAB for 1 Cor 6:9 never says that
Paul was " most likely talking of pedestry". What the footnote talks about is the translation of the greek term “Malakai”. The footnote doesnot specify the term, however, if you go to this passage in a greek NT the term is there. The footnote continues to explain that the term may be refering to the latin term “catamites” and proceeds to explain the meaning of this term. This was done to contrast how the term “Malakai” has been translated in other bibles - usually the translation is “Male Prostitutes”. The contrasting translations come from that fact that both terms are viable translation. If Paul’s malakai was refering to the “catamites” then the NAB’s translation is more accurate, however, if Paul’s intention was to condemn those who would take on the female role in a homosexual act (what some writers refer to as ‘passive prostitutes’) then “male prostitutes” would be the better translation.
Two thumbs up for the SBNs (super bible nerds) who have graced this thread!