K
Kingtroll1
Guest
Wait a minute where does it say that mary was assumed into heaven in scripture. And what reliable historical record has such an event. If it is so important it would have been recorded in scripture
This theory of yours is not supported by scripture.If it is so important it would have been recorded in scripture
So, where in scripture does it say that it has to be in scripture to be true? Scripture says the pillar and ground of truth is the Church and scripture does not take that mantle for itself. The way that we know that scripture is true is because the pillar and ground of truth (the Church) says it is true. Since it is true, then it does not conflict with the Church.Wait a minute where does it say that mary was assumed into heaven in scripture. And what reliable historical record has such an event. If it is so important it would have been recorded in scripture
Honor your father and your mother, so that you may live long in the land the LORD your God is giving you.
— Exodus 20:12 (NIV)
Is Mary a Saint ?Hi.
Was saint Mary taken up to heaven, like Lord Jesus?
God bless you.
Joseph was not His father after the flesh. Mary, on the other hand, was the mother of God - The Son after the flesh. Mary as the mother of Christ incarnate of the flesh was entitled to honor. Therefore, no rotting in the ground for Mary, or we are all damned because it would have been a sin not to assume Mary into heaven.“Besides, if Christ allowed His mother to rot in the ground, then He dishonored her and sinned. Therefore, you have no salvation.”
Therefore if I were to take your logic further he dishonored his Earthly father Joseph by letting him rot in the ground. He likewise obeyed Joseph his father and mother Mary as well as his father in heaven.Code:Honor your father and your mother, so that you may live long in the land the LORD your God is giving you. — Exodus 20:12 (NIV)
Again, show it to me in scripture where it says that something needs to be in scripture.This theory of yours is not supported by scripture:
All scripture is “useful” or profitable. However, nowhere in this verse does it include the word “sufficient” as in scripture is sufficient. Furthermore, the word “only” is missing as well. The verse does NOT read “Scripture and only scripture is sufficient for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness.” This verse fails you as it does not say what you would like to twist it say. It does not take authority over anything. Besides, a large junk of the NT was not even written when Paul addressed this to Timothy.Indeed it is:
2 Timothy 3:16
All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness
1 Timothy 3:15 - “But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.”“So, where in scripture does it say that it has to be in scripture to be true? Scripture says the pillar and ground of truth is the Church and scripture does not take that mantle for itself. The way that we know that scripture is true is because the pillar and ground of truth (the Church) says it is true. Since it is true, then it does not conflict with the Church.”
Citation please from scripture. All the apostles and Jesus cited the scriptures in support of their theology also likewise since the letters of paul, Revelation and Gospels are scripture they are then also useful for teaching rebuking correcting and training in righteousness.